2 questions

Hi

1.I know that I can write: "The walls of Jerusalem"  How about "The Jerusalem walls" There is neither "of" nor possessive form yet it's correct, why?

2. "Our company will be wound up after its aims for which it was established have been achieved and its assets have been exhausted."

How about the tenses in this sentence. Can I use past simple and present perfect in the same sentence. What if I write "aims for which it has been established"

thanks

Mister Micawber wrote:

1.I know that I can write: "The walls of Jerusalem"  How about "The Jerusalem walls" There is neither "of" nor possessive form yet it's correct, why? -- Because Jerusalem is serving as an adjective. 2. "Our company will be wound up after its aims for which it was established have been achieved and its assets have been exhausted."  How about the tenses in this sentence. Can I use past simple and present perfect in the same sentence.-- Yes; all the verbs in a sentence needn't be the same tense; it depends on the time relationships of the individual actions.  Here the establishment is completed, but the aims have not yet been achieved and the assets have not yet been exhausted. What if I write "aims for which it has been established" -- No; the establishment is finished and rooted solidly in the past.

So is it Ok to say: "books pages" instead of "pages of the books" or "books' pages"

How about: "Company Council" instead of "Council of the Company" or "Company's Council"

As for the second sentence: I think it's possible and correct to write "for which it has been established" it would mean, in my opinion, that the company and its aims were started in the past but they continue right up to the point of speaking, to this very day!

So, I guess, it doesn't matter which tense I will use, both are correct. That's my opinion

cheers