A few grammar doubts.

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Simi

#399193 Wed, 01 Aug 07 12:00 PM

Hi,

I have a couple of doubts:

1. "I've been meaning to tell you".

Why has it ("meaning to") been used this way? Can someone explain me how can i use it more often, in general?

2. People use sentences like:

a) Could it be more interesting?

I comprehend it as "Its most interesting" being said emphatically. That is superlative form of the adjective is used, like the use of "most" in the way I understand it. Am I right?

b) "I couldn't agree more".

My logic of understanding does not apply here, as a negative is being used. Please explain.

3. I had studied in junior high that in a sentence, there should not be usage of negatives more than once, still I've come across sentences like:

"He is not no idiot.".

"There ain't no particular way."

Isn't this kinda usage wrong? If it's correct, then how?

4. Shania Twain's song goes:

"That don't impress me much".

Shouldn't that be "That doesn't impress me much"?

Thanks!

Simi

Joined on Thu, Jan 4 2007

Junior Member (80)

My theory is that if you look confident you can pull off anything - even if you have no clue what you're doing. --Jessica Alba

Grammar, Negatives

Luxurious

#399199 Wed, 01 Aug 07 12:32 PM

"He is not no idiot.".
"There ain't no particular way." WE can't say so. Where did you find this?

"That don't impress me much". Actually in songs, in colloquial speech such things are quite often, but grammatically it's incorrect.

Luxurious

Joined on Sun, Jul 29 2007

Russia

New Member (36)

Feebs11

#399202 Wed, 01 Aug 07 12:43 PM

Simi wrote:
Hi,

I have a couple of doubts:

1. "I've been meaning to tell you".

Why has it ("meaning to") been used this way? Can someone explain me how can i use it more often, in general? I have been intending to ...
I have been intending to/meaning to go shopping
I have been intending to/meaning to read the new Harry Potter

2. People use sentences like:

a) Could it be more interesting?

        I comprehend it as "Its most interesting" being said emphatically. That is superlative form of the adjective is used, like the use of "most" in the way I understand it. Am I right? "More" is used to make a comparative. "Could it be interesting?" > Could it be more interesting?"

b) "I couldn't agree more".

       My logic of understanding does not apply here, as a negative is being used. Please explain. I am tempted to say just take this as an idiom! "More" here is "to a greater extent".

3. I had studied in junior high that in a sentence, there should not be usage of negatives more than once, still I've come across sentences like:

                            "He is not no idiot.".

                            "There ain't no particular way."

Isn't this kinda usage wrong? If it's correct, then how? These are double negatives, which logically will produce a positive statement.   [He is] not [no idiot] = He is stupid/an idiot      [There is] not [no particular way] = There is a particular way.
It is incorrect, but commonly spoken. Do not use in formal language.

4. Shania Twain's song goes:

                            "That don't impress me much".

Shouldn't that be "That doesn't impress me much"? Formally yes, but this is a song, and they can often ignore formal grammar.

Thanks!

Feebs11

Joined on Thu, Nov 23 2006

Veteran Member (5,008)

Grammar, Negatives, Idioms

Simi

#399315 Wed, 01 Aug 07 06:52 PM

Hey,

Thanks feebs, you really cleared my doubts in a great way. Smile [:)] Still am not that sure if I am clear with the doubt no. 2. Could you or someone else please explain it again giving certain examples in both positive and negative usage?

Thanks.

Simi

Negatives

Simi

#399384 Thu, 02 Aug 07 12:47 AM

Nobody's gonna help me? Sad [:(]

Simi

Clive

#399438 Thu, 02 Aug 07 06:34 AM

Hi,

Let me offer some more comments.

2. People use sentences like:

a) Could it be more interesting?

I comprehend it as "Its most interesting" being said emphatically. That is superlative form of the adjective is used, like the use of "most" in the way I understand it. Am I right?

Consider a TV set in a store, that has the price of $1. Coul;d it be more expensive? Yes, it could. The price could be $2, or $200. In other words, this question can just be a normal question, in such a context.

However, now consider that I find a TV set that has a price of $2,000,000. I say 'Could it be more expensive?', meaning that I think it could not be more expensive. This is a hyperbolic question, an exaggerated question that is not meant literally.

b) "I couldn't agree more".

My logic of understanding does not apply here, as a negative is being used. Please explain. The meaning here is that I agree so completely that it is not possible for me to agree more than that.

If you still have questions about this, please post again.

Please also note that the word 'doubt' is not normally used in the way that you are using it. Say 'I have questions' rather than 'I have doubts'.

Best wishes, Clive

Clive

Joined on Thu, Oct 28 2004

Canada

Veteran Member (23,116)

El tango argentino es un pensamiento triste que se puede bailar (The tango argentino is a sad thought which can be danced) Enrique Santos Discépolo

Negatives

Sooris

#399449 Thu, 02 Aug 07 07:13 AM

People misspelling 'grammar' as 'grammer' worries me most.

Sooris

Joined on Tue, Sep 26 2006

chennai

Full Member (121)

Sureshbabu Padmanabahan

Grammar, Spelling

Simi

#399481 Thu, 02 Aug 07 09:04 AM

Thanks Clive. Now I understand it well. Smile [:)]

Simi

#401385 Tue, 07 Aug 07 07:32 AM

Feebs11 wrote:
Simi wrote:

3. I had studied in junior high that in a sentence, there should not be usage of negatives more than once, still I've come across sentences like:

                            "He is not no idiot.".

                            "There ain't no particular way."

Isn't this kinda usage wrong? If it's correct, then how? These are double negatives, which logically will produce a positive statement.   [He is] not [no idiot] = He is stupid/an idiot      [There is] not [no particular way] = There is a particular way.

It is incorrect, but commonly spoken. Do not use in formal language.

I'm again asking a question on this thread. I'd understood it well, but now I am coming across something thats contradicting the explaination Feebs provided on point 3. She says they are called double negatives. So how would anybody justify this?

"Hey, I ought to leave the young thing alone,
But ain't no sunshine when she's gone, only darkness everyday.
Ain't no sunshine when she's gone,
And this house just ain't no home anytime she goes away."

Does this mean "There is sunshine when she's gone" and "This house is a home anytime she goes"? Doesn't make much sense and I am confused. I know it's grammatically incorrect and it's a song, but I'd like to know how people use it in an informal language. Please explain.

Thanks.

Simi

Negatives

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