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Adult native English speakers do not commit errors in usage.

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milky  #400924  Mon, 06 Aug 07 09:46 AM

<Nice example, but the teacher's reponse here strikes me as a rather elaborate attempt to avoid being labeled "prescriptive" -- a label to which the teacher seems to have a pathological abhorrence!  >

What an odd sort you are, Jim. If a teacher tries to tell things the way they are, he abhors prescriptivism. And pathological? Don't be so melodramatic, Jimmy.

<once the student gets to America maybe he can try using "ain't" himself, and see what kind of reaction he gets, and decide for himself.  Smile <img src=" src="/emoticons/emotion-1.gif">>

Let's run it. See what folks think:

Student: Sir, should we use "ain't" if we go to America?

Teacher Jim: Tell you what, when you get to America you can try using "ain't" yourself, and see what kind of reaction you get. Then you can decide for yourself. 

Students All: ........................

<Should we ...? is a yes/no question.>

For whom? And just because you ask me a yes/no question, does it follow that I have to give a yes/no answer? Now who's being prescriptive, Jim?

<It's like asking what time it is and being given a survey of how timepieces are made in different countries.>

<Lastly, I think you may be trying to slip the word appropriate into that answer to show that considerations of appropriateness are not necessarily prescriptive.>

A rather pathetic comparison, Jim.

Nobody is trying to slip anything anywhere, Jim. You've decided upon, and been precriptive about, the meaning of the word appropriate. You've insisted that a teacher who uses that word is behaving prescriptively in all cases of that use. I do not agree with your interpretation/s.

<I think the teacher's use of appropriate implicitly means 'you should' to the student.  >

Difference?

Teacher:1 I say you should.

Teacher 2: They say you should.

....................


 

  
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Hume said that if we had perfect or complete descriptive knowledge of reality, we could not, by reasoning, derive a single valid "ought".
milky  #400934  Mon, 06 Aug 07 10:05 AM

 CalifJim wrote:
So I guess if you want a good descriptive approach you should probably find a good teacher, a teacher you would like to have as a model to imitate in everything.
Excellent advice in my opinion!

CJ

Wow! Are we in Japan, here?

  
CalifJim  #400935  Mon, 06 Aug 07 10:08 AM
A should is a should is a should.  No student could mistake that "they" refers to an authority of some kind, so the I / they distinction is immaterial.

CJ

  
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"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
milky  #400937  Mon, 06 Aug 07 10:11 AM

<I'm still scratching my head about the definition of appropriateness here, and how it is measured, which led me to ask this still unanswered question.>

If you are scratching your head about another person's use, what do you want from that person? Do you use the word "according to" in class? I do. Do you teach your students to have distance from information that you supply? I do. Do you tell them that you could be wrong on occasions? I do. Or are your students so blindly in awe of your position as "knower" that they cannot think for themselves? Mine aren't.

  
milky  #400938  Mon, 06 Aug 07 10:12 AM
BTW, Jim, what does the term "Forum Guru" mean to you and how do you think most students here interpret that label?
  
milky  #400941  Mon, 06 Aug 07 10:17 AM

 CalifJim wrote:
A should is a should is a should.  No student could mistake that "they" refers to an authority of some kind, so the I / they distinction is immaterial.

CJ

Again, you prescribe.

I don't think students need to be told that authority exists, Jim. They may wish to consult you on how much you know about such authority. If you do know something, do you wish to keep it from them?

Note the difference between these and think of your position as respondent in each and tell us how you would answer each one:

May I smoke in here?

Can we smoke in here?

Is smoking allowed here?

  
CalifJim  #401115  Mon, 06 Aug 07 05:42 PM
In this last series of posts, the discussion has become too diffuse to follow.  It now seems to be going off in all directions, with no real hope of regaining focus.  I just want to point out that having an opinion is not the same as prescribing, and that the word "prescriptive" has taken on the status of a curse, both in this thread and in the field of language study in general.  I'll just have to leave it at this:  Yes, I do prescribe at times, and I do describe at times.  But in doing the one or the other I don't see myself as criminal or saint.  Get a grip, people! Smile [:)]

CJ

  
Alienvoord  #401577  Tue, 07 Aug 07 04:31 PM
 CalifJim wrote:
I wasn't talking about teaching language. I was talking about linguistics.
OK.  Then let's accept that it is linguistics, and not teaching, that is concerned with "levels of appropriateness", which you mentioned earlier.  I'm still scratching my head about the definition of appropriateness here, and how it is measured, which led me to ask this still unanswered question.

...what part of this scientific study determines "levels of appropriateness"?   What data is collected?  What parameters in the data are examined to determine such conclusions as "Sentence S has level L on the appropriateness scale"?

I can see how a table of frequencies is descriptive, but I don't see how, without something like a 'panel of experts', one could develop the scale of appropriateness necessary to discuss 'levels of appropriateness'.


And I don't understand your response to my previous post where I mentioned sociolinguistics. We observe linguistic behaviour, and we describe it. If something is common in a certain context, then it's appropriate for that context. It's not about opinion, it's about describing linguistic behaviour.

But as I said, I'm not an expert in sociolinguistics.
  
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Grammar Geek  #401629  Tue, 07 Aug 07 06:18 PM

At great risk of being the next person tarred and feathered, perhaps we need to think of these pursuits - teaching and describing - like an anthropologist and a policeman. One merely notes what it happening as scientific study and the other tries to ensure the society mores and norms, as codified by laws, are followed.

The analogy breaks down because there is no one standard to decide that English usage is "legal" or not -- there is no Supreme Court, only various usage panels, and the body of literature, and so on. So the teacher/editor is in the position of trying to convey the laws as they understand them, without universal agreement on what they are.

If Faulkner writes in a way that the M-W usage panel would find non-standard, who is "right"? No one here can say. Some who have said "This is standard English" on here have been vilified on the forums as not being open to other various "legitimate" dialects.

When I make comments like "You could say it this way" or "That would be wrong" I generally mean in American business today, because "American business English" is my standard.

Unless we have a formal council on the proper use of the English language, we will simply never have agreement here on "shoulds."

  
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Barbara, who answers in American English.
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