after having lost + present perfect?

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Globetrotter  #124178  Fri, 05 Aug 05 02:33 PM
Hello

I was wondering if the construcion was ( or is ?) a present perfect construction.
If yes why is present perfect used? Becuase of a consequenece that would be likely to follow?Would that, at the same time, mean that in american english  simple past would be used in that case? What would be the simple past version? after loosing? But that wouldn't be smple past , would it?

thanks in advance

Juts if needed: I mean a sentence like: After having lost my key, i had to get a new one.

By the way: wouldn't past pefect have to be used? after having had losT? or something like that Wink [;)]

  
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Mister Micawber  #124391  Sat, 06 Aug 05 03:15 AM

Globetrotter, you must really compose your posts more carefully, and take more time in proofreading them before you post (click 'Preview' below the message box first, not 'Post').

I'm not sure what you are enquiring about, but the nonfinite clause after having done = after doing in most contexts.  The former stresses the recent completion of the event, and yes, connects it more to the subsequent action as a consequence or other related event.  It is not the perfect aspect, since it is nonfinite, and just expresses general completion.  A 'past perfect' form does not exist.





  
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