Anybody/nobody/someone

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Evo25  #549505  Fri, 01 Aug 08 06:42 AM
it is after the the word such as anybody,nobody and someone,the verb work is appear in singular context?
so,it should follow by adding 's' in the verb word  that is used.
nobody/someone/anybody corrects you..
but while i look at the dictionary..it makes me feel confused about it.
The main meaning of persuade is to make someone agree to do something by giving good reasons for dong it.
the word agree above is appear in singular context...
so,after the word of someone,the verb word need to add 's' or otherwise?
thanks..

  
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Avangi  #549515  Fri, 01 Aug 08 08:16 AM
The key is the verb "to make" in this case.  It's followed by the bare infinitive  -   to make [to] agree to do

If instead of "make" you use "force," which is followed by the complete infinitive, you can better see how the form works.

Someone tries to force someone to agree to do something.  There are three "complete" infinitives in this sentence.  The only simple present verb is "tries," which follows your rule.  Infinitives don't change from singular to plural.

Furthermore, the second "someone" is the direct object of "force," rather than a subject, and therefore is not required to agree with the verb.
The same thing is true of "someone" in the definition you have quoted from the dictionary.

Another example which follows your rule would be: Unless someone agrees to pay for this meal, we'll all have to wash dishes.  Here, "someone" is the subject of the clause, and the verb is singular, to agree.

I know I didn't approach you question from the right end.  If your dictionary quote were something like, "in the movie, someone agrees to do something terrible,"  "someone" would be the subject of the sentence and would follow your rule.  But in your example, it is not the subject.

  - A.

Edit.  I hope you can follow this mess.  I should have scrapped it and started over, but I have to go to work!  Sorry.
  
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