Bare-infinitive vs. to-infinitive

There is really tricky problems in identifying the subtle differences between seemingly similar sentences like the below.

(a) Joe helped Mary make a pizza.

(b) Joe helped Mary to make a pizza.

In one book, it says that an expert named Bolinger says (a) is immediate assistance and (b) is mediate assistance because 'bare-infinitive' in (a) - make - means 'coincidence' with the verb 'help' and 'to-inf' in (b) -to make- means 'future.'

What I want to know is

1. Do you natives really feel that way?

2. If not, please read this.

This is what I think. These two sentences has little, if any, differences between themselves. Because I believe language doesn't have any pre-decided rules.

If people pre-decided 'bare-infinitive' should be used in 'coincident' context and 'to-inf' in 'future' sense, so we should use 'bare-inf' in the sentence like 'Mary made her husband clean the bathroom,' HOW this idiom -Money makes the mare to go- is possible and still is used?

I mean, if there was a rule that prevented the use of 'to-inf' with causitive verb 'make' how was the idiom possible?

So I think people used 'to-inf' in the first place and then as English require complex nuances, there emerged 'bare-inf' with other nuances.

What do you think of my theory?

Stenka25 wrote:

There is really tricky problems in identifying the subtle differences between seemingly similar sentences like the below. (a) Joe helped Mary make a pizza. (b) Joe helped Mary to make a pizza. In one book, it says that an expert named Bolinger says (a) is immediate assistance and (b) is mediate assistance because 'bare-infinitive' in (a) - make - means 'coincidence' with the verb 'help' and 'to-inf' in (b) -to make- means 'future.' What I want to know is 1. Do you natives really feel that way? 2. If not, please read this. This is what I think. These two sentences has little, if any, differences between themselves. Because I believe language doesn't have any pre-decided rules. If people pre-decided 'bare-infinitive' should be used in 'coincident' context and 'to-inf' in 'future' sense, so we should use 'bare-inf' in the sentence like 'Mary made her husband clean the bathroom,' HOW this idiom -Money makes the mare to go- is possible and still is used? I mean, if there was a rule that prevented the use of 'to-inf' with causitive verb 'make' how was the idiom possible? So I think people used 'to-inf' in the first place and then as English require complex nuances, there emerged 'bare-inf' with other nuances. What do you think of my theory?

Hello

 I am Scottish and a TEFL teacher.   The two sentences mean the same, there is no difference whether you use to inf or not.  It is past tense.  No ref. to future or coincidence.  Mary made her husband clean the bathroom  make means forced (he did not want to do it)  Neve heard of that Idiom.  More common Idiom   is     Money makes the world go round.

 Hope this is of help to you.