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Can / Could and Will / Would

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equivocal  #78184  Thu, 03 Mar 05 10:05 PM
Dear CJ,

Do you think the deontic modal is marked/stylistic, too?
"I asked if I might sit beside the mayor."


Not as marked as the dynamic ones, but not as neutral as the epistemic ones. Deontic modals apply modality in the context of the law of the world in question. So in your sentence, the modal still reflects the possibility operator. The connotation of "permission to sit" comes from it being deontic (hence stylistic) and not from it being a modal in the sense of the possibility operator.

I know I am just plaguing you with questions, but your ideas are so novel and unorthodox (for me, anyway) that I'd like to understand better what you're saying.


It's my job to defend my analysis. The more challenges there are the more loopholes can be uncovered.

What does "external knowledge of the use" of a word mean?
Are we to infer that there is also "internal knowledge" of the use of a word? If so, maybe you could explain what that means, too?Smile [:)]


I will begin with the "internal knowledge". Every word has a meaning (well almost every word, arguably). The "internal knowlegde" is the pure epistemic reading, the minimum amount of information for the word to mean what it does. For example, if I say "kill the lights" the verb's use is stylistic. So for me, to "kill" would be to do something which causes a living object to stop being alive. All other information extracted out of context is extraneous.

Returning the "might" example, might(P) means that there is a possibility that P. That's it. All other information gleaned from the discourse, e.g. permission, negative/positive bias is extraneous. This extraneous information is the "external" information.

So you are saying there's a difference between the grammatical use of language and the stylistic use of language? Sorry, but I don't get it! Do you mean something like idioms when you say stylistic?


Idioms are just but one bit of stylistic usage but stylistics spreads across a broad range of linguistic devices. Think of it as a subset of pragmatics if you will. For example:

1. Can you pass me the salt?

This is not really a question. It's actually an imperative trying to be polite. Even passive constructions are marked in my opinion: that is to say that there is no reason to construct a passive if there is an active counterpart unless for focussing reasons: you want to bring attention to the semantic object perhaps. Topic constructions, echo questions etc. These are all marked constructions which involve language stylistics (the style and variation of usage) but grammatical in the sense of that it is recognised as a legal utterance in the speech community, not in the sense of its fundamental grammar.

I believe the most fundamental of fundamental of sentences is an active constuction and this resides in the fundamental grammar. The fundamental grammar is a set of basic rules in the language, preferably without transformation that yield all possible unmarked utterances in the language. It's abit more complicated than that though, but I can't really talk about it in great detail though until the work is published, it's still in progress.

eq
  
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equivocal  #78185  Thu, 03 Mar 05 10:13 PM
Dear MrP,

But isn't grammar that which we extract from all the contexts in which something is used?


No, grammar is a set of rules which generate all possible utterances of the language and none of the illegal ones. In my opinion that is, I'm a generativist. I will even go further to distinguish a fundamental grammar from an embellished one. Read my reply to CJ for a little more information on my "fundamental grammar".

That for instance is how we write the grammar of a previously unknown language.


I assume you mean the stuff which we extract from all contexts? Not quite actually. If you want to study an unknown language, let's call it Zeezee and if you have no language in common with the speakers of Zeezee you would want to spend time doing several things:

1) Collect a list of basic nouns
2) Collect a list of basic verbs
3) Collect the sounds of the language
4) Look at the word order of simple sentences with respect to 1 & 2

Only when you have done this, having defined say that a sentence in Zeezee works by stringing the Verb, Subject and Object (which is extremely rare by the way) in that order, can we begin to look at other things.

eq
  
MrPedantic  #78195  Thu, 03 Mar 05 11:16 PM
Hello eq

Grammar is a set of rules which generate all possible utterances of the language and none of the illegal ones.
I would not wholly disagree with this statement; but I would suggest that the set of rules has first to be inferred; and it can only be inferred from context – e.g. if the verbal prefix ²Q¹ always accompanies a reference to past time, and occurs in no other context, we may tentatively pencil in the possibility that ²Q¹ relates to a past tense of some kind.

Which is to say, I don't believe we can discount the possibility that the meaning of a word is the way in which it is used.

On the question of may/might, I'm still not quite sure how your analysis would distinguish between

1. 'I may have gone sailing last week'

and

2. 'I might have gone sailing last week'.

I have a sense of positive meaning in the first of these, and negative meaning in the second. Or to put it another way: #1 does indeed suggest forgetfulness, and #2 does indeed suggest reproach; and I'm not sure how this can be explained by your earlier models.

MrP
  
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equivocal  #78218  Fri, 04 Mar 05 12:33 AM
MrP, I think we are not agreeing on what we mean by context. For me context would be any information not readily available from the fundamental meaning of the utterance.

I have a sense of positive meaning in the first of these, and negative meaning in the second. Or to put it another way: #1 does indeed suggest forgetfulness, and #2 does indeed suggest reproach; and I'm not sure how this can be explained by your earlier models.


You have explained it here: it is your "sense" which yields these meanings. This sense does not arise from the meaning of may/might on its own as a modal but it arrives from may/might with respect to the entire construction of the sentence.

Maybe a better way of putting it would be that I believe that the fundamental meaning of a word is its meaning when it stands on its own and that is present in all constructions with that word. For may/might that is its status as the possibility operator. So regardless of what type of modal it plays in the utterance, it always maintains its status as a possibility operator.

eq

  
CalifJim  #78262  Fri, 04 Mar 05 04:01 AM
Hi, eq,

So are you saying that in your way of looking at it, a word only and always (fundamentally) has only one meaning? -- Because it seems that this is what you are saying.

And are you saying that any other meanings we come to associate with that word are sort of acquired "after the fact", as if we learned the meanings of words in order from most fundamental meaning to secondary meanings?

Another question: It sounds as if you are building some kind of theory of the semantics of the modals on the purely logical (epistemic) uses, always explaining other uses in terms of the epistemic ones. Yes?

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CalifJim  #78265  Fri, 04 Mar 05 04:19 AM
You have explained it here: it is your "sense" which yields these meanings. This sense does not arise from the meaning of may/might on its own as a modal


I would say this means that Mr. P.'s sense somehow 'creates' the meanings of those modals in the context of the sentences in which they occur, but that Mr.P.'s sense somehow does not 'create' the meanings of those modals 'on their own'.

But doesn't someone's "sense" yield the (fundamental) meanings of 'modals on their own'?

It seems you are separating meaning from use. (The meaning of 'may' is 'possibility operator'; the use of 'may' is -- among others -- to ask permission.) Would you agree?

CJ
  
paco2004  #78345  Fri, 04 Mar 05 11:38 AM
It's neither to ask something nor to argue against anybody. It's just to summarize what I was taught in school about modals.

English modals can be sorted into three groups by their tense bearingness and senses.

stating facts (semantically tense bearing)
will be able to/can/could (physical, sensual, mental) ability/capability
(1) Can you drive a car? Yes I can.
(2) I couldn't swim when I was a boy.
will have to/must/had to obligation/necessity
will/would/used to habit

asking hearer's current mood (semantically present tense)
can/could/will/would/may/might
(1) Can you help me? (2) Could you help me?
(3) May I borrow your umbrella? (4) Might I borrow your umbrella? (more hesitant)

expressing speaker's current mood (semantically present tense)
will/would speaker's liking or tendency
might/may/could/can/should/ought to/should/would/will/must/(fact) speaker's judgment on the dgree of possibility/certainty

The modals used in combination with the if-clause subjunctive mood seem to belong mostly to the 3rd group. The time implied by the sentences using these kind of modals is expressed by the form of the following infinite verbals (bare infinitive or have + past participle). All of these modals themselves are taken semantically in present tense but 'would', 'should', 'might', and 'could' are syntactically treated as in past tense.

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equivocal  #78471  Fri, 04 Mar 05 10:31 PM
So are you saying that in your way of looking at it, a word only and always (fundamentally) has only one meaning? -- Because it seems that this is what you are saying.


Indeed, one and only one. However, I've been using the word quite liberally, before the 'word' is retrieved from the mental lexicon it starts out as a concept., Furthermore, I believe that there is only one meaning at two levels. The first level is the lowest one and this interpretation is unique to an individual. So my interpretation of the verb 'kill' at the fundamental form is different from yours at this base level.

This information then gets passed on to the next level, which is something like a logical level. At this level, everyone's interpretations of the word is the same, across all languages. I still wouldn't really call it a word at this stage yet, but merely a logical concept. At this stage, all concepts are the same for everyone, across all languages. The concept at this stage is what I have been referring to throughout the discussion.

The next level is the syntactic one, where words are pulled out of the lexicon of a language then put together.

The next level is what I would call the embellishment level. Here all the contextual information, stylistic usage, cultural use etc occurs.

The final level is of course utterance.

For interpretation of utterances, you reverse the process.

Another question: It sounds as if you are building some kind of theory of the semantics of the modals on the purely logical (epistemic) uses, always explaining other uses in terms of the epistemic ones. Yes?


No, I'm building a non-linear grammar model.

eq
  
MrPedantic  #78512  Sat, 05 Mar 05 01:49 AM
Intriguing, eq.

Would you regard 'concept', 'logical level', etc as functions of different areas of the human brain?

MrP
  
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