komountain  +  187140 Sun, 22 Jan 06 02:36 PM Hi. I remember the subject question was once discussed on this forum. One moderator said to the effect that the expression 'can't stand' takes either form. However, I've gotten rather confusing information on this from two different websites. One classifies 'can't stand' as a verb that takes an -ing form as its object, while the other lists it as a verb that can take either a gerund or an infinitive. I personally have used the -ing form and thus I prefer it, but as a non-native speaker I want to doublecheck. Are these two forms used in equal proportions, or is one more commonly used than the other, or is ether of the two sites wrong? I need a clincher. Thanks.  komountain Joined on Mon, Nov 8 2004 Full Member 269 Verbs, Gerunds

	pieanne  +  187143 Sun, 22 Jan 06 03:01 PM I think it's mostly used with the gerund. However, if we take "bear" (which is a near synonym) , maybe there's some kind of reasoning possible; you use the -ing form when it's something you have already experienced and so relates to past events: "I can't bear/stand seeing somebody cry">everytime you've seen someone cry, it has been unbearable to you. "I couldn't stand/bear to wake up and see you gone"> this relates to the future, and to something the speaker hasn't experienced yet. This might not be correct, but that's how I see it; maybe someone will come and correct me. pieanne Joined on Thu, Jan 20 2005 South of France ...But I'm Belgian! Veteran Member 7,517 I'm glad to help, but I'm not a native! And please excuse my typos... Gerunds, Synonyms

	CalifJim  +  187307 Sun, 22 Jan 06 10:59 PM I hear it used more with the gerund, but either way is OK. The infinitive may be used to avoid the awkwardness of two gerund constructions in a row. I can't stand to see her crying. sounds a lot better, to my ear, than I can't stand seeing her crying. CJ CalifJim Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004 California Veteran Member 22,465 "There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche Constructions, Gerunds