Correct a sentence (subjunctive) 2

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Hela  #69871  Tue, 25 Jan 05 06:43 AM
Dear teachers,

1) Now I'm getting really confused because somebody told me that "sent" after "It's high time" is not a subjunctive. What is your opinion?

2) what's the difference in meaning between:

a) "It is high time she WAS in bed / WENT to bed" (indicative) &
b) "It is high time she WERE in bed / WENT to bed" (subjunctive) &
c) "It is about time she WAS / WERE in bed." ?

How would I know if a person is using the indicative or the subjunctive in "It's high time you WENT to bed / LEARNT your lesson" ?

Thank you all very much.

See you soon,
Hela
  
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paco2004  #69920  Tue, 25 Jan 05 10:45 AM
Hello Hela

I think the question you raised is very subtle. One of my grammar books (written in Japanese) says grammatically it should be a subjunctive construction but the book also says that now almost nobody uses "It's (high) time I/he/she were in bed" and almost everybody uses "It's (high) time I/he/she was in bed" instead. So I think you could take it as one of special usages of the past indicative.

I think you can get the concept of this sentence this way. Suppose a boy habitually gets into bed at 9:00 PM and suppose now the time is 9:30 PM. Then it would be natural for you to suppose that he went to bed. In this case you could say "it is time he was/went in bed". When you say to the boy "it is time you were in bed", you mean like this: "You are staying up till too late. The time you have to go to bed is already in the past. You have to rush into your bed!"

I made a google survey and got a result as follows:
(1) It's time to go to bed. 105,000 hits
(2) It's time for you to go to bed. 1,820
(3) It's time (that) you go to bed 13
(4) It's time (that) you should go to bed 9.
(5) It's time (that) you went to bed. 2773
The sentences #1 to #4 and #5 may be a little different. I think the sentences #1 to #4 would imply it is just a good time to do something, while the sentence #5 implies the time for doing something has already passed.

Now the use of the sentences of the type #3 seems very rare. Nevertheless actually they were used in the past. For example:
(6) It is time that we conclude. (Edgar Allan Poe)
(7) It is almost time that I prepare for the new role I have to play. (Conan Doyle)

Since my English writing skill is so bad I'm afraid you cannot take what I meant but I hope this will help you someway.
  
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CalifJim  #69980  Tue, 25 Jan 05 06:12 PM
In English the forms for the indicative and those for the subjunctive are identical in the present.
Exception 1: The subjunctive of "to be" in the present is "be" regardless of the subject.
Exception 2: The third person singular drops the "s" inflection of the indicative to form the subjunctive. (He goes. vs. ...that he go.)

The forms for the indicative and those for the subjunctive are identical in the past.
Exception 1: The past subjunctive of "to be" is uniformly "were". Hence, only when the subject is "I" or third person singular can past indicative be distinguished from past subjunctive.

That's it! That's the whole story on subjunctives in English from the point of view of the formation of the tenses.

Consequently, in "It's high time you went to bed" there is absolutely no way whatsoever that you could possibly know if a person is using indicative or subjunctive. You would have to elicit an example from the speaker of either "It's high time he was in bed" or "It's high time he were in bed" (or the equivalent with "I" or something in the third person) in order to see whether that person's mind conceives of the structure "It's high time" as one which requires an indicative or a subjunctive.

If I were the native informant you chose to interview for this experiment, you would elicit from me the sentence "It's high time I was in bed". From my experience as a native speaker I would guess that almost everyone would say it that way, and that almost no one would say "It's high time I were in bed". So on the whole, my opinion is that the indicative is used after "It's high time".

Smile [:)]
  
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Hela  #70076  Wed, 26 Jan 05 06:51 AM
Hello Jim,

and what do you think of "It's about time she LEARNT to look after herself." is LEARNT in the simple past of the indicative or is it in the past subjunctive ?

Thanks a million for your precious help!
Hela
  
CalifJim  #70284  Thu, 27 Jan 05 06:16 AM
As I said above,
The forms for the indicative and those for the subjunctive are identical in the past.


("learnt" is not an exception to this rule.)

Therefore "learnt" cannot be said to be only one or the other. It is both indicative and subjunctive in form.

If you want the answer from the point of view of "feelings in the head", i.e., how the speaker who utters such a sentence feels about it, i.e., whether he feels an indicative or a subjunctive flavor, then your answer will vary from person to person. I personally "hear it as" subjunctive, but I know from other evidence, e.g., "It's about time he was here", that it's felt as indicative by many (possibly most) speakers.

There's not really any way out of these dilemmas in English. Unfortunate for learners from a language with a clearer division between indicative and subjunctive, but true.

Bon courage!

CJ
  
Hela  #70404  Thu, 27 Jan 05 06:08 PM
Thanks CJ for your answer,

I'm glad that you FEEL the verb "learnt" as a subjunctive because I have been taught that after the expressions "it's hight time", "it's about time", "as if/though", "if only", "would rather/sooner" and "wish" we needed the subjunctive mood. So you can understand how confused I was when I noticed that native English teachers on the web said that after "it's hight time" the verbs were in the indicative. But maybe it's only a question of personal usage and how modern English is evolving.

Thank you for your help and dedication to us, EFL learners.
Hela
  
just the truth  #70729  Sat, 29 Jan 05 05:32 AM
As I [CJ] said above,

The forms for the indicative and those for the subjunctive are identical in the past.



("learnt" is not an exception to this rule.)

Therefore "learnt" cannot be said to be only one or the other. It is both indicative and subjunctive in form.


JT: Are you suggesting, Jim that are examples of the subjunctive?

  
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CalifJim  #70749  Sat, 29 Jan 05 07:34 AM
Neither "had", "lived", nor "went" are parts of the verb "to be". Therefore it is impossible to say whether they are past indicative forms or past subjunctive forms. Other than forms, we also have what I call "feelings in the head". In that sense of "subjunctive" (i.e., a subjunctive feeling in the head) I believe it depends on the context and possibly on the speaker whether these words ("had", "lived", and "went") are subjunctive, i.e., elicit subjunctive feelings in the head of that speaker.

An equivalent question is: Is "starts" future in "Class starts next Tuesday"?
Well, yes and no. It's the "present tense" (in the sense of "form") and it's also "future time" (or "future feelings in the head"). To ask whether a single word like "went" or "starts" is present, past, indicative, subjunctive, future, ... is, in a way, to ask a question which has no answer, rather like asking "What's the difference between?" Smile [:)] [I realize you framed it within the framework of an "if" clause, but even that is not enough context to give a complete answer.]

I find it useful when teaching those whose native language has a full register of subjunctive tenses (both forms and feelings) to use the descriptive grammatical words that make the most sense to the speakers of those languages. For a similar example, unlike some, I have no objection to calling "me" in "Give me a dollar" a dative pronoun. I use terminology strictly or loosely depending on the situation, my primary purpose being to help students acquire English.
  
just the truth  #70759  Sat, 29 Jan 05 08:56 AM
It is my understanding that English has only a few subjunctive forms. "If S + (past tense 'action' form)" ['action' means went/chose/jumped/etc; those verbs other than the 'be' verb] is not one of those subjunctives. Since it isn't a subjunctive, how can we call it a subjunctive?






  
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