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Pease look at the sentence below and the underlined part
Within the establishments of BRICS countries, it is recognised that BRICS is essentially a work in progress. The expectations are modest and pragmatic. It will be fair to say that the one-to-one meetings between the partners, all of who are important, are a value in itself during the summits. BRICS does create an opportunity, for example, for our Prime Minister to meet for the first time, the new Chinese leader, Xi Jinping, in an intimate setting.
Is the use of 'all of who' correct?
Or should it have been all of whom?
Thank you.
Contributing Member1,103
nagariyaIs the use of 'all of who' correct? Yes, because "who" is the subject of "who are important".
Senior Member3,601
nagariyaIs the use of 'all of who' correct?
No. Whom is the object of the preposition of. All is the subject of the clause all of whom are important.
Veteran Member8,003
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Thank you very much.
But don't you think that when you use "all of..." you need to complete the phrase with an object.
I really think that "all" is actually the subject. Compare, again, to:
"All of us are here to help" (not "All of we are...")
"I have seven sisters. All of them are blond" (not "All of they are...")
=> "I have seven sisters, all of whom are blond".
So going by this I think who is wrong.I am confused please explain.
Thank you.
Thank you asparagus.
So should I always use objective 'whom' after "all of"?
Thanks.
Anonymous:
"Of" is always followed by "whom" rather than "who".
"The lady who sang, of whom I spoke."
Aspara GusnagariyaIs the use of 'all of who' correct?No. Whom is the object of the preposition of. All is the subject of the clause all of whom are important.
On second thought, you are right about that. (brain cramp)
I believe so, yes.
(That is, if there are any exceptions, they're all escaping me at the moment.)
The reason is that "whom" is the "subjective case" pronoun (as opposed to the "objective case" equivalent, "who"), which is required by the pronoun's function as the object of the preposition "to" in the above example.
You would not [properly!] say, "all of we;" you would say, "all of us."
Similarly, "all of they" is wrong; "all of them" is correct.
"We" and "they" are objective case pronouns; "us" and "them" are the subjective-case equivalents.
New Member04
smartalekThe reason is that "whom" is the "subjective case" pronoun (as opposed to the "objective case" equivalent, "who") … "We" and "they" are objective case pronouns; "us" and "them" are the subjective-case equivalents.
You have it backward: whom, us, and them are object pronouns, while who, we, and they are subject pronouns.
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