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I have met him before.=I met him before.

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Viceidol  #543566  Sat, 19 Jul 08 04:21 PM

Hello, everyone:

One of my grammar book says:

 I have met him before.=I met him before.

I have heard it before. = I heard it before.

Is that really true? Thank you for your reply.

  
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Mr Wordy  #543604  Sat, 19 Jul 08 06:33 PM

It's the same deal for "met" and "heard", so to keep it simple I'll just use "met" in the examples. 

"I met him" means that I'm talking about a specific time in the past when I met him

"I have met him" means that I've met him on one or more occasions on the past. It's not important when those occasions were; all I'm trying to get across is that I have met him at some time.

However, if the word "before" is added, and the sentence ends there, then this often implies the second meaning (because "before" itself often means "at some time(s) in the past"). I would therefore usually say "I have met him before" to avoid an inconsistency between the tense and the word "before". But other speakers may not agree with this, and so you might well hear "I met him before". I get the impression that the latter form might be more common in American English, but a native American English speaker would need to confirm that. An additional complication, though, is that "before" can also be used to mean "recently", or "a little while ago". In this case I would not use "have". For example, if I was introduced to a visitor for a second time then I might say "I met him before".

If "before" is followed by a time reference then "have" is normally not used. For example, "I met him before I joined", not "I have met him before I joined."

  
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Grammar Geek  #543605  Sat, 19 Jul 08 06:38 PM

As an American speaker, I think I'd use the present perfect.

Barb, come me Joe.
Oh, we've met. Nice to see you again Joe.

If you come to the party, you can meet Barb.
We've met before, but it will be nice to see her again.

On the other hand: We first met in Paris. The Germans wore grey. You wore blue.

  
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