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Latest post Thu, Sep 27 2007 8:00 AM by Usenet. 1 replies.
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Anonymous    646561 Wed, 26 Sep 07 05:20 PM

Hello,
This my first post to this group.
I was asked a question by a friend of mine: Why is the -ey in money pronounced differently than the -ey in convey? long e versus a long a
sound..
I told her I thought it based on the respective etymologies of the words, but she is wondering if there is any kind of a rule as to when one would use one over the other.
I don't personally think such a rule exists, but does anyone know the answer definitively?
Thanks,
dave
Einde O'Callaghan    646575 Thu, 27 Sep 07 08:00 AM

(Email Removed) schrieb:
"Hello, This my first post to this group. I was asked a question by a friend of mine: Why is ... use one over the other. I don't personally think such a rule exists, but does anyone know the answer definitively?"

As you say, the pronunciation is based to a large extent on the etymology - there is no rule for the pronunciation of letter combinations in English. The "-ey" in "key" has another pronunciation and when you include names like "Feynman" you have yet another pronunciation of that combination.
Sometimes the pronunciation of a word may change over time under the influence of other words with the same letter combination or of the proniunciation in other dialects, varieties or (non-standard) accents. an example of this is the pronunciation of the word "schedule" - when I was young the usual pronunciation in Ireland and Britain of the "sch-" combintion was the same as "sh-" - now this pronunciation seems to be being replaced by the pronunciation "sk-", probably under the influence of the American pronunciation.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
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