Do and Does , has and have

because when you use the verb 'to do' as an auxilary verb, it takes the third person

eg She has a cold. (to have is the main verb, there isn't an auxilary so have becomes has.)

eg2 She doesn't have a cold. (to do is the auxilary verb it becomes does, have stays the same)

Right, you only have to "inflect" one verb in a simple tense (past or present). When there is also a helping verb in the sentence, then this one is inflected while the main verb remains unchanged.

He has money. -> "has" is the only verb, so it has to be flected to show which tense or person is used.

He does have money. -> "does" is the helping verb, it stresses the meaning of "have" in this sentence and shows which tense and person is used, too.

He doesn't have money. -> here, "does" helps to negate the sentence. Also here, it includes the tense and person so it's not necessary to repeat it once more for the full verb.

The same is true for the past tense:
As soon as you have inflected the helping verb, the main verb remains in its infinitive:
He had money.
He did have money.
He didn't have money.

There are twenty-eight auxiliary forms in English. (F. R. Palmer: The English Verb)

BE: is, are, am, was, were, ("nonfinite forms" be, being, been),
HAVE: has, have, had, ("nonfinite forms" have, having),
DO: do, does, did,
MODALS:
will, would, shall, should, can, could, may, might, must, ought, dare, need

The auxiliaries BE, HAVE, and DO are inflected for person, number, and tense; the MODALS are invariable.

According to some linguists, all English sentences contain an auxiliary, but the auxiliaries "do", "does", and "did" are deleted and their inflections transferred to the main verb under certain circumstances, usually non-emphatic affirmative declaratives.

Is it correct if I say that " The Cage number has cage number but the cabinets has no cabinets data", Is that a right grammar?