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When does the difference count?

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milky  #274686  Sat, 30 Sep 06 10:26 PM

Facchinetti has said that "just because two modals are interchangeable in a specific context does not mean that they are strictly equivalent. This means that what difference there is between them does not affect the meaning of the utterance to the point that it means something altogether different and may therefore cause misunderstanding".

Modality in Contemporary English, pg 82.

  
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Hume said that if we had perfect or complete descriptive knowledge of reality, we could not, by reasoning, derive a single valid "ought".
CalifJim  #275210  Mon, 02 Oct 06 08:19 AM
I suppose she [might/could] be right.

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"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
milky  #275240  Mon, 02 Oct 06 09:26 AM
Undoubtedly.
  
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