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This question is Not Answered
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Elena
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74201
Tue, 15 Feb 05 10:43 PM
Do you know the origin of this expression?
I just know that it is attested from 1423, from etymonline.com, but why with the verb 'fall'?
Joined on
Thu, Jul 31 2003
Regular Member
827
Enjoying my English study
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MrPedantic
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74214
Tue, 15 Feb 05 11:53 PM
That's a tricky one, Elena.
Maybe 'fall' in the sense of 'happen': cf. 'it fell upon a summer's day', etc.
Or cf. 'fall asleep'. The two states are very similar.
Or maybe in the sense of 'stumble into': cf. 'to fall into error'.
In Chaucer's 'Sir Thopas' (?1386) we have:
'Sir Thopas fil in love-longinge
Al when he herde the thrustel singe
And priked as he were wood...'
[Sir Thopas fell into a state of love-longing when he heard the thrushes singing, and spurred his horse as if he were mad...]
MrP
Joined on
Tue, Oct 12 2004
Veteran Member
12,592
...opella forensis / adducit febris...
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Elena,
4 yr 279 days ago
Then, to fall into a state of.
Thanks, MrP
Does cf. mean 'confer-compare'?
E
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MrPedantic
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74364
Wed, 16 Feb 05 01:32 PM
Hello Elena
Yes, cf. = 'compare'.
1423. I wouldn't have thought it was such an old expression. It sounds new-ish to me!
See you
MrP
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