General Questions. Please, help!

Hello!

Please, could tell me which of the alternatives below is the correct one ?  

1) The jewelry has been sold (or) the jewelry have been sold ?;

2) The gift hasn't been given him (or) the gift hasn't been given to him ?;

3) Another house will be offered him (or) another house will be offered to him?;

 In relation to nº 2, I suppose isn't correct to say: The gift hasn't been given to Bob, is it?

Thanks,

Camille 

Hello, Clive!

     Thank you. But I have two other questions, please.

1)  Why do the word 'jewelry' (plural form for jewel) takes a verb in the singular: "The jewelry has been sold".(?);

2) Why in this sentence: "The gift hasn't been given to Bob" is correct to say to Bob? Because as it appears after a verb, the only pronoun to be used wouldn't be an object one  = to him?

Best regards,

Camille

Hi, Clive!

      Thanks for your attention. I see...My question was: 

       Bob, someone's name, is the same as the personal pronoun he, when used in the beginning of sentences. Example:

      - Bob is a good student (Bob = personal pronoun He) ,

      But when it appears after a verb as an indirect object , for example:

      - The gift hasn't been given to Bob .   So here, Bob is the same as the object pronoun him, and not as the subject pronoun he.

      So because of this I thought that the grammar only accepted if we always write:

     - The gift hasn't been given to him (and not to Bob). But if  I don't misunderstood your explanation, there's any problem if I also write or say: - The gift hasn't been given to Bob, isn't it?   

      Best regards,

      Camille    

Hi, Clive!

     Thanks for your help. And sorry for some mistakes (because I 'm still in the middle of my English course). For example I should have said: "...but if I didn't misunderstand your explanation , there's no problem if..."

     Best regards,

        Camille