genitive

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paco2004  #192680  Sat, 04 Feb 06 10:34 PM

OK, I too will be done with the issue of  England's King.

paco 

  
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Hela  #193158  Mon, 06 Feb 06 10:52 AM

Hi everybody,

Sorry to ask the question again: if we say "The King of England" it's because we're talking about a title but we have to say "The King's English" it's because we're talking about a particular dialect that is spoken by a particular person, which makes both "concepts" closely related? 

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paco2004  #193169  Mon, 06 Feb 06 11:57 AM

 Hela wrote:
"The King of England" it's because we're talking about a title but we have to say "The King's English" it's because we're talking about a particular dialect that is spoken by a particular person.
Hello Hela

You are quite right. In Great Britain, nowadays, there is no person who speaks the King's English, but in USA, there was a very noble person who spoke King's English eloquently. The below is an example of King's English. How beautifully it sounds!

"I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: 'We hold these truths to be self-evident: that all men are created equal.' I have a dream that one day on the red hills of Georgia the sons of former slaves and the sons of former slave owners will be able to sit down together at a table of brotherhood. I have a dream that one day even the state of Mississippi, a desert state, sweltering with the heat of injustice and oppression, will be transformed into an oasis of freedom and justice. I have a dream that my four children will one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the color of their skin but by the content of their character. I have a dream today."

Best wishes

paco

  
Clive  #193223  Mon, 06 Feb 06 02:30 PM

Hi,

In Great Britain, nowadays, there is no person who speaks the King's English.

How about the Queen? (Or perhaps she is ruled out on the grounds of gender?)

Clive

  
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paco2004  #193463  Tue, 07 Feb 06 12:10 AM

 Clive wrote:
How about the Queen? (Or perhaps she is ruled out on the grounds of gender?)
I agree. The use of The King's English has been suspended since 6, Feb, 1952, when King George VI died. Since then an elegant lady has been speaking the Queen's English instead.

paco 

  
MrPedantic  #193484  Tue, 07 Feb 06 12:45 AM
 Hela wrote:

PS: Please do not forget to answer my previous question:

Dear MrP, why should we write "Bill Gates' achievements" and not "Bill Gates's achievements" and still pronounce /geitsiz/? Is it the same for "James' house" (or "James's house")?

Hello Hela

I would take the terminal s in "Gates's" and "James's" as optional. For instance, the park in London is usually styled "St James's Park"; but the football ground in Newcastle is "St James' Park".

Where a proper noun ends with an "-iz" sound, though, or in Classical/Biblical names, most people avoid the terminal s.

MrP

  
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Hela  #193587  Tue, 07 Feb 06 06:49 AM

And what about a name that ends with 2 "s", do we HAVE TO add the apostrophe s?

e.g. This is Tess's house  =  /tesiz/

So you wouldn't add an "s" to Sophocloses and Socrates because they are already pronounced with /siz or tiz/ sound at the end, right?

See you soon Smile [:)]

  
MrPedantic  #193905  Wed, 08 Feb 06 12:00 AM

Hello Hela

Yes, you have to add the 's to "Tess". It seems that we may only leave off the s if the terminal sound is z:

1. Loch Ness's other monster.

2. Black Bess's younger sister.

3. The princess's pillow.

But:

4. Jones' house/Jones's house.

You might see or hear "Sophocles's" or "Socrates's"; and you would be a little more likely to see/hear "Marcus Aurelius's"; but the consensus seems to be that where a classical name refers to a classical character, you avoid the "apostrophe-s".

Perhaps it's a little too Germanic to sit happily with a Greek or Latin (or Hebrew) name. Though when a name is now an accepted English forename, the genitive seems more acceptable, e.g. "Marcus's", in reference to a modern person.

MrP

  
Hela  #194040  Wed, 08 Feb 06 07:00 AM
Thank you, MrP Big Smile [:D]
  
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