HuevosCould you please explain how that is so? I saw "Mr. Doe having read the book many times" as a noun phrase of the second clause and "having read" as the verb phrase of the previous quote. How is it operating as a gerund?
Grammatical terminology varies from time to time and from country to country, even from grammarian to grammarian. I am not familiar with the term "noun phrase" and consequently I have never used it. Actually, I had never seen it until I hit English Forums.
Mind you, I have nothing against it and I'm not saying there's something wrong with it. I just don't use it, that's all.
"The thing that impacted me instantly was Mr. Doe (not Mr. Doe's??)
having read the book many times and being able to quickly understand
the content of the book."
In my grammatical terminology having read is a gerund but if you want to call it something else, I don't mind. Having read follows was, in other words, a form of to be, which is possible for a gerund:
Seeing is believing.
Having read also has a subject (Mr. Doe / Mr. Doe's), which is possible for a gerund:
I insist on his/him going there.
In the sentence having read also has an object (the book), which is very common for a gerund:
I insist on his/him reading this book.
A gerund is neither a noun nor a verb. It resembles both to some extent. It resembles a verb in that it can have an object, unlike nouns. A gerund can even be used in the passive:
He insisted on English being spoken.
Those who think a gerund is a noun and therefore its subject must be a possessive form will say: He insisted on English's being spoken. (I'm not one of them.
)
CB