FandorinHi. Yes, both of the words may be used. Simply "have(has) got" tend to be used side by side with have (has,had).
have(had,has) got = have(has,had). But the expression "had got" is rarely used in contemporary grammar.
Hi Fandorin
You seem to be mixing things up.
Angliholic's sentence is
not an example of the idiomatic "
to have got", which means basically the same thing as "to have" or "to possess".
In that idiom, it is not possible to change the word 'got' to 'gotten' -- not even in American English. It would be unusual to find "to have got" used in the past tense (i.e. had got).
Angliholic's sentence uses the verb "
to get" in the past perfect. To form the past perfect of the verb "to get", you need
had+gotten in AmE
or had+got in BE.
The past perfect of the verb "to get" is in current use and is used just as often as the past perfect of any other verb.