Grammar Doubts 2 (to MrP)

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MrPedantic  #90962  Mon, 18 Apr 05 12:48 AM
11) ...Indeed, it would seem that, to know that there is no correspondence whatsoever between any of our ideas and the objective world, Bett’s non-local skeptic must paradoxically have some kind of epistemological access to the true nature of this very thing our ideas fail to represent adequately. Furthermore, if according to the non-local ethical skeptic described by Bett our ideas do not adequately represent anything outside us, one should ask how he can know that there exists a mind-independent world in the first place...

Otherwise fine!

I'll be back to pick up your supplementaries...But tomorrow, I think.

See you,
MrP
  
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MrPedantic  #91297  Mon, 18 Apr 05 11:27 PM
Hello Sextus

4) Yes, that's fine – 'inevitably' is stronger.

6) Yes, it's a past subjunctive; but 'accounts' is fine too.

17) The placing of 'on account of' is slightly awkward; it attaches itself to 'are parties' rather than 'impossibility'. 'To be party to' is fine, as a set phrase. I think you would have to say 'judgment with regard to', rather than 'over'. 'Appears' would be more BrE; but I think yes, in AmE you would be likely to see a subjunctive.

See you later,
MrP
  
Sextus  #91494  Tue, 19 Apr 05 04:02 PM
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Sextus  #91973  Wed, 20 Apr 05 09:37 PM
Hi MrP. As my message ended up on page three, I take the freedom to post it again.

1) "The impossibility of giving his assent to any of the positions which are party to these various disputes, on account of their apparent equipollence, leads the Pyrrhonist to the adoption of suspension of judgment with regard to the matters in question. Hence, the mere fact that there is diversity of points of view, opinions, or theories is not in itself sufficient to induce suspension of judgment: it is also necessary that none of them appear to have more weight than the others.”

Yes, I also felt that the "on account of..." is kind of weird. Perhaps: "...disputes, due to the fact that their arguments appear to be equipollent,..."?

2) You've already seen this paragraph, where I use the term “party”, and when referring to it I use the possessive adjective “its” and then the personal pronoun “they”. The point is that I’m not sure whether I should rather use “their”/ “they” or “its” / “it” or just leave the way it is.

“He will point out that such opinions seem to be dependent upon each party’s familial, cultural, and social background, as well as upon its religious, metaphysical, and scientific beliefs and theories, so that one may say how abortion appears to be in relation to each of these factors, but not how it is in itself. But his inquiry will not stop there: he will attempt to determine whether any of the contending parties can justify its claims. That is to say, in attempting to prove the truth of an assertion, one of the parties will have to prove the truth of the premise from which they infer the assertion, and so on ad infinitum. Or, to avoid being thrown back ad infinitum, they will try to establish the truth of one of the links of the chain of reasons by having recourse to the first link whose truth they set out to establish, thus falling into circularity. Or they will argue that one of the links of the chain needs no proof to establish its truth because, for instance, it is self-evident or self-justifying.”

3) "I underline this point because, in discussing his paper through written communication, Bett pointed out to me that Annas had claimed that contemporary ethical skepticism rests on a non-skeptical position regarding science, and that what he had intended to prove was that this need not be so."

4) "It follows from this that when I translate the term anepikritos as “undecidable”, I do not use this word in a strong sense. I think that if up to now the arguments put forward by the parties to a dispute have appeared to a person to have equal force it is consistent to say that at least so far it has not been possible for that person to give his assent to any of the contending positions".

Thanks,

Sextus
  
MrPedantic  #91990  Wed, 20 Apr 05 10:29 PM
Sorry, I was coming back to it. These threads are drifting down at an alarming rate these days.

1) The two 'facts' are slightly awkward. How about this:

The impossibility of giving his assent to any of the positions which because of their apparent equipollence are party to these various disputes leads the Pyrrhonist to the adoption of suspension of judgment with regard to the matters in question.

2) I think it's ok as it is. 'Their' could be confusing, in place of the first possessives; and 'it' would sound stiff, in place of the later 'they'! There isn't any danger of confusion, because by the time you start using 'they' and 'their', it's clear who you're talking about.

3) "I emphasise this point because Bett has indicated, in a personal communication on the subject of his paper, that Annas had claimed that contemporary ethical skepticism rests on a non-skeptical position regarding science, and that what he had intended to prove was that this need not be so."

4) Does this change your meaning?

"It follows from this that when I translate the term anepikritos as “undecidable”, I do not use this word in a strong sense. I think that if up to this point the arguments put forward by the parties in a dispute have appeared to have equal force, it is consistent to say that at least so far it has not been possible to give assent to any of the contending positions".

Have I missed any other questions? Bump them up if so!

MrP
  
Sextus  #92198  Thu, 21 Apr 05 04:46 PM
No problem at all. After all, you’re are helping me even if there’s no reason to do so.

1) Yeah, the sentence didn’t sound ok. I think that the following keeps the same meaning. What do you think of this:

“The impossibility of giving his assent to any of the apparently equipollent positions which are party to these various disputes leads the Pyrrhonist to the adoption of suspension of judgment with regard to the matters in question.”

4) How about this?:

“It follows from this that when I translate the term anepikritos as “undecidable”, I do not use this word in a strong sense. I think that if up to this point the arguments put forward by the parties in a dispute have appeared to one to have equal force, it is consistent to say that at least so far it has not been possible to give one’s assent to any of the contending positions.”

Perhaps "one" sounds better.

Sextus
  
MrPedantic  #92255  Thu, 21 Apr 05 10:41 PM
But there is something distressing in the sight of unanswered posts drifting onto page 4 or 5. Rather as if they were floating out into the open sea.


#1 is fine, but I wonder if it could be compressed:

'Since it is impossible to assent to any of the seemingly equipollent positions in these disputes, the Pyrrhonist suspends judgment.'

In #4, 'one' is slightly awkward. How about this:

“It follows from this that when I translate the term anepikritos as “undecidable”, I do not use this word in a strong sense. I think that if up to this point the arguments put forward by the parties in a dispute have appeared to a neutral observer to have equal force, it is consistent to say that at least so far it has not been possible for that observer to assent any of the contending positions.”




MrP

  
Sextus  #93504  Tue, 26 Apr 05 06:35 AM
I've sent the paper. As always, your corrections and suggestions have proved to be extremely useful. Thanks a lot.

See you,

Sextus
  
MrPedantic  #93561  Tue, 26 Apr 05 11:02 AM
My pleasure, Sextus! Good luck with the paper, and post again.

MrP
  
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