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Guest:
My son, a grade 7 student in a French school, is struggling with English grammar. Unfortunately, on this one, his English speaking mother cannot decide which is correct.
He must decide which to use: "...she had run the whole way" or ".....she had ran the whole way". They both seem plausible to me. HELP!!!!!!
2 comments 'She had run... ' is the correct answer - past perfect uses the auxiliary verb HAVE in the past, with the past participle RUN.

Ran is the past simple of run. 'She RAN the whole way' is also correct (without had).
Hope this helps.
Junior Member53
Guest:
Thank you for your help. This is a great site, especially for those of us (like me) who have been out of school for a number of years and are now trying to explain grammar to our children. Thanks again, much appreciated.
run, ran, runEmotion: smile

she runs the whole way everyday . ( simple present )

she ran the whole way yesterday. ( simple past )

she had run the whole way ..... ( past perfect )
Regular Member882
Anonymous:
I was just talking to my husband this morning about people who run marathons. Which is correct:

She has run 38 marathons or She has ran 38 marathons?
"She has run"
Veteran Member7,461
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GuestMy son, a grade 7 student in a French school, is struggling with English grammar. Unfortunately, on this one, his English speaking mother cannot decide which is correct.
the short answer is, whatever the teacher says is correct. as you might surmise from the thread so far, that's gonna be 'run'.
GuestHe must decide which to use: "...she had run the whole way" or ".....she had ran the whole way". They both seem plausible to me. HELP!!!!!!
the reason that (a) they both seem plausible to you and (b) your son's english-speaking mother can't decide between them is that they both are plausible. many englishes reduce the paradigm of so-called irregular verbs so that the past participle form reflects the (simple) past tense form; hence the grammaticality (in mine and some other people's englishes) of:

(1) He had went to the party.

in the same way, the p.p. of the irregular verb 'to run' can take the same form as its past tense:

(2) She had ran the whole way.

in my Standard english, however, the paradigm is not reduced, leaving 'run' the only possible p.p. form:

(3) She had run the whole way.

labelling your Standard english's paradigm correct implies any deviation from it is somehow incorrect - which i find mildly humorous and ever-so-slightly worrying. yet people do denounce (1) and (2) above as errors.

sam, 'who'da thunk it?'
New Member45
Anonymous:
... Sam C excuse me but what exactly is this 'englishes'?

Edited by mods: Calm down, please. Everyone is volunteer here and you may not like the given answers. Please bear in mind that you still have the chance to look for more information from different users.
Anonymous:
The present tense of run is run. The association members run a sloppy office.
The past tense is ran. I ran out of patience.
The past participle is run. I have run into resistance every time I've tried to solve the problem. She has run from her responsibilities.
Regarding the problem that arises when forming the past participle, some people mistakenly use the past tense ran instead of the correct past participle run, as in I have ran into resistance every time I've tried to resolve this problem or She has ran from her responsibilities. (I've also heard some people make the same mistake when forming a sentence in the past perfect tense, as in I had ran them down before they left the office, which should be I had run them down...) Do yourself a favor: Run as far from these constructions as possible-and don't look back.
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