Has or has had

   Share on Facebook  
Rotter  #488612  Thu, 13 Mar 08 10:18 PM
Chaldeans are members of an autonomous Catholic Church that retains a unique liturgy and tradition while recognising the Pope's authority.

Chaldeans form the majority - about 550,000 - of Iraq's estimated 700,000 Christians.

Their spiritual leader, Chaldean Patriarch Emmanuel III Delly, is based in Baghdad. He was made a cardinal by Pope Benedict XVI in 2007.

His Church originally comprised members of the Nestorian Church, and has had a presence in the country now known as Iraq since the 2nd Century.

Nestorianism ascribes to the belief that Jesus Christ has two natures - that of a divine being, the Son of a God, and that of a mortal human.

 

The Eastern-rite Church the Chaldeans belong to has a traditional liturgical language, Syriac - a linguistic descendant of Aramaic, the language thought by most scholars to have been spoken by Jesus and his disciples.

--

My question is on the following sentence of the above:


His Church originally comprised members of the Nestorian Church, and has had a presence in the country now known as Iraq since the 2nd Century.

Why is it necessary to write 'has had a presence in the country now known Iraq since 2nd Century'?

 It is enough to write 'has a presence in the country now known Iraq since 2nd Century'

What do you think? 

 

 

  
Top 150 Contributor
Joined on Sun, Jul 24 2005
Japan
Regular Member (655)
Я люблю российских девочек.
Avangi  #488615  Thu, 13 Mar 08 10:40 PM

I think you need the "had" to show continuous action since the 2nd Century.  "Has a presence" alone can only mean present tense, and we get jolted when we come to the "since."

  
Top 25 Contributor
Joined on Mon, Nov 19 2007
Senior Member (3,289)
Proficient SpeakerTrusted Users
". . . le plaisir delicieux et toujours nouveau d'une occupation inutile." - Henri de Regnier
AddThis Feed Button RSS Feed: ESL General English Grammar Questions
© 2008 MediaCET Ltd.
Terms and Conditions & Terms of Service