Anonymous  +  170785 Sat, 17 Dec 05 11:28 AM Hello, Is it correct to say "the system has proved incapable of reform"? Or should one say "the system has proved to be incapable of reform"? Or maybe both phrases are wrong? I'd appreciate any help. Anonymous

	Clive  +  170871 Sat, 17 Dec 05 04:43 PM Hi, Is it correct to say "the system has proved incapable of reform"? Or should one say "the system has proved to be incapable of reform"? Or maybe both phrases are wrong? Both sound OK. However, I find the meaning here ambiguous. Do you mean the system is incapable of receiving the reform, or of performing the reform? eg  The public cannot reform the health system or The health system cannot reform the public (eg in their attitude to nutrition or exercise)  If the former, a clearer sentence would be the system has proved (to be)incapable of being reformed. Best wishes, Clive Clive Joined on Thu, Oct 28 2004 Canada Veteran Member 29,668 El tango argentino es un pensamiento triste que se puede bailar (The tango argentino is a sad thought which can be danced) Enrique Santos Discépolo

	Eager-to-learn  +  171054 Sat, 17 Dec 05 10:32 PM  Clive wrote: However, I find the meaning here ambiguous. Do you mean the system is incapable of receiving the reform, or of performing the reform? Thanks for your reply, Clive. I think the phrase was supposed to mean that the system was resistant to change (or reform), i.e., say, the health system in Xland could meet the challenges of the times, while the health system of Yland could not adapt, proved incapable of reform (and, say, should therefore be considered fundamentally flawed).  Would  the use of the underlined phrase be correct in this context? Thanks again. Eager-to-learn Joined on Sat, Dec 17 2005 New Member 04

	Clive  +  171067 Sat, 17 Dec 05 10:52 PM Hi again, Well, if you said incapable of reform in the right context, I'd understand. But I still see the system has proved incapable of being reformed as a better and non-ambiguous way to express this. Clive Clive