We have partnered with TradePub to bring you free industry magazines and resources - no coupons or credit cards required!

Visit: englishforums.tradepub.com


Share this topic:
This question is Answered
1 verified answer
Latest post Sat, Nov 7 2009 6:49 AM by d_say. 2 replies.
Suggest an answer | | |
d_say  +  963132 Fri, 06 Nov 09 06:11 AM
We use "has" if subject is singular and "have" with plural. Then why do we use ..

 

Where do you have lunch? (Sounds okay)

 

Where does he have lunch? (Why don't we use has instead)

Best answer by CalifJim  +  963228 Fri, 06 Nov 09 08:46 AM
d_say
“Where does he have lunch? (Why don't we use has instead)”
There can be only one s marker in a verb phrase, and it has to be on the first verb.


Where does he have lunch?


The verb do, if present, carries the marker of the singular, so the verb have cannot also carry it.


He has lunch.

He does have lunch.

Does he have lunch?

He does not have lunch.


You can't put both does and has in the same verb phrase because that would create a verb phrase with two s markers.

________________


The same is true of all verbs.


He wants lunch.

He does want lunch.

Does he want lunch?

He does not want lunch.


CJ

All the other replies..
d_say  +  964051 Sat, 07 Nov 09 06:49 AM
Phew... !

 

Glad to have your reply. I really thankful to you for this.

 

 

Thanks once again from the depth of my heart.

 

_

 

© MediaCet Ltd. 2009, v5.0.3607.32596. All content posted by our users is a contribution to the public domain, this does not include imported usenet posts.*
For web related enquires please contact us on webmaster@mediacet.com, status updates are available at status.mediacet.com.
*Usenet post removal: Use 'X-No-Archive'. You may not have understood that your posts would end up in the public domain. Please send proof of the poster's email, we will remove immediately.