have had turns into had?

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Lunchbox

#269177 Tue, 19 Sep 06 06:40 AM

As my topic reads, why are there instances where:

"I've had this experience before" turns into "I had this experience before"

or

"I've forgotten my wallet" turns to "I forgot my wallet"

Are both forms grammatical?

Thanks =)

Lunchbox

Joined on Wed, Sep 13 2006

New Member (39)

CalifJim

#269221 Tue, 19 Sep 06 08:44 AM

Both are grammatical. They are simply two different tenses - past perfect and simple past.
It's just like two different shapes - a circle and a square, for example.
So I have no idea what you mean by "turns into". Circles don't turn into squares, for example.

CJ

CalifJim

Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004

California

Veteran Member (16,965)

"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche

Tenses, Past perfect, Simple past

milky

#269224 Tue, 19 Sep 06 08:47 AM

turns into a frog = becomes/transforms into/is heard as

It's a fairy tale metaphor, Jim. Magic language use.

milky

Joined on Thu, Jan 15 2004

Senior Member (3,149)

Hume said that if we had perfect or complete descriptive knowledge of reality, we could not, by reasoning, derive a single valid "ought".

Metaphors

CalifJim

#269227 Tue, 19 Sep 06 08:52 AM

Well, you seem to know more about this magic stuff than I do, so I leave it to you to answer our first poster in terms he might understand. Smile [:)]

CalifJim

milky

#269229 Tue, 19 Sep 06 08:54 AM

No problem, Jim. You already answered his main question.

milky