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Latest post Sun, Aug 3 2008 10:27 PM by Yoong Liat. 6 replies.
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khoff  +  202693 Fri, 03 Mar 06 02:57 AM

This question arose at my husband's office, and I said I would consult all you experts:

"If you or Betty have/has any questions, please call me."

My instinctive answer to this was "have," but I couldn't really explain why I think the "you" form of the verb (have) should take precedence over the "Betty" form of the verb (has), unless it's because you could think of it as having parentheses around "or Betty."  However, the more variations I consider, the less sure I am of how to explain the guiding principles.

If either you or Betty have/has any questions . . .

If you and/or Betty have/has any qeustions . . .

If Bob or Betty have/has any questions . . .

If either Bob or Betty have/has any questions . . .

If Bob and/or Betty have/has any questions . . .

If anyone has any questions (obviously not have, because anyone)

If any of you have/has any questions (have inplies only one questioner; has implies several)

Opinions, anyone?  Thanks.

(edited to correct a typo)
khoff
Joined on Sun, Mar 6 2005
Senior Member 3,267
Native speaker of American English (but not a grammar expert)
Grammar Geek  +  202696 Fri, 03 Mar 06 03:07 AM

I've been taught that when the subject has an "or," you make the verb agree with the subject the verb is closer to.  But when you have either, it takes singular 3rd person - if either has is the same as if either B or B has

But on the other hand, sometimes using "correct grammar" can make you sound awkward or pedantic. And the rule of not "stopping" your reader with awkwardness trumps proper grammar, so in cases where there is a conflict between the two, whenever possible, rewrite. After Bob and Betty have read this, if either of them has any questions... 

Or (tongue firmly in cheek) - if Betty has any questions, she can call me. That goes for you too.
Grammar Geek
Joined on Tue, Jan 10 2006
Veteran Member 19,660
Barbara, who answers in American English. My housekeeping skills attest to the truth of the second law of thermodynamics: Left to themselves, things get more and more random!
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Anonymous, 1 yr 111 days ago
Tom have a balloon
Grammar Geek  +  550369 Sun, 03 Aug 08 06:24 PM
Anonymous
“Tom have a balloon

”

 

has = 3rd person singular.

Tom has a balloon.

Grammar Geek
Yoong Liat  +  550414 Sun, 03 Aug 08 08:18 PM
"If you or Betty have/has any questions, please call me." (has)

If either you or Betty have/has any questions . . . (has)

If you and/or Betty have/has any qeustions . . .  (...you and Betty have; ... you or Betty has ... )

If Bob or Betty have/has any questions . . . (has)

If either Bob or Betty have/has any questions . . . (has)

If Bob and/or Betty have/has any questions . . .  (... Bob and Betty have;  ... Bob or Betty has ...)

If anyone has any questions (obviously not have, because anyone) (correct)

If any of you have/has any questions (have inplies only one questioner; has implies several) (You've got it the other way round.)
Yoong Liat
Joined on Mon, Sep 4 2006
Veteran Member 6,757
Kooyeen  +  550447 Sun, 03 Aug 08 10:06 PM
This is an old thread, but I remember asking the same question because I was confused by what grammar books said. It turned out both are ok, singular or plural, possibly depending on the situation. I personally tend to use the singular if I feel I somehow want to separate the two subjects (works especially with "either... or"):
If either you or your partner needs help with... call 1-800 blah blah.
If either Bob or Mary finds out what we did, we are dead men.
On the other hand, if I feel one subject is more important than the other for some reason dependent on the context, then the verb will agree with that subject. And if the two subjects are somehow felt to be connected or dependent on each other, I'll use the plural, as if they were connected by "and" instead.
If you or your friend here want to eat something else, just tell me, ok?
If my mother or my father find out I'm here, they'll kill me for real. (= felt as "if my parents find out...")

This is just my opinion based on what I learned. And the fact that Khoff heself, a native speaker, was confused about this is a good sign. It means there aren't any definite rules. Smile
Kooyeen
Joined on Thu, Dec 22 2005
Italy
Senior Member 4,969
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Yoong Liat  +  550456 Sun, 03 Aug 08 10:27 PM

Hi Kooyeen

I believe the natives seldom refer to grammar and English usage books because they speak English since they were very young, and so they do not have to refer to such books, If you bother to refer to grammar or English usage books, you will be able to find the rule and that is the verb has to agree with the noun closest to it. GG mentioned this earlier if I'm not wrong..

If you refer to a dctionary, you will also find the rule there.
Yoong Liat
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