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Latest post Sun, Dec 18 2005 7:03 PM by rishonly. 4 replies.
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Break Away  +  171302 Sun, 18 Dec 05 01:40 PM

More than one has/have been enough for us to do it

Which one is right?why?

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LanguageLover  +  171340 Sun, 18 Dec 05 03:26 PM
As far as I know, both of them are correct. However, I personally use a singular form of the verb. Why? I don't know, it's the same as everyone, everybody,... Everyone has/have enjoyed the party. I think it depends on how you look at it, wheather you mean each individual or the group of individulas!
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TammyBaby  +  171346 Sun, 18 Dec 05 03:34 PM
I use "have" because the subject means plural. But sometimes, we use "has" with subbjects meaning plural, for example: everything, everyone, information... etc.
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MrPedantic  +  171348 Sun, 18 Dec 05 03:38 PM
 Break Away wrote:

More than one has/have been enough for us to do it

Which one is right?why?

Hello Break Away

Can you provide a context for this sentence? It seems slightly strange to me.

MrP

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rishonly  +  171433 Sun, 18 Dec 05 07:03 PM

Hi BreakAway,

As MrP mentioned, the context will help to get  the right answer.In general, following are the rules to use  'more than one':

(1) "more than one" + "singular noun"  takes a singular verb.

(E-x) More than one customer gets discount.

(2) "more than one" + "of"+ "plural noun" takes a plural verb.

(E-x) More than one of the problems are resolved.

(3) more than one" + "<no subject>"  mostly takes a singular verb.

(E-x) More than one has been enough for us to do it.

 I hope this gives you some idea.

 

 

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