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maverick88  #76117  Wed, 23 Feb 05 07:21 PM
This knife is used to cut bread. (= its function is bread-cutting)
This knife is used for cutting bread. (= the knife's function is bread-cutting)
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Those are the same, right?
1) The former one somewhat implies that there's someone who uses it, doesn't it?

2) So if I have an inanimate subject, both the following are OK?
(inanimate)S + is used + to + bare infinitive
(inanimate)S + is used +bare infinitive
Just like in the examples above...
  
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pieanne  #76119  Wed, 23 Feb 05 07:30 PM
I don't understand how this "(inanimate)S + is used +bare infinitive " is correct?
  
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Mister Micawber  #76149  Wed, 23 Feb 05 11:33 PM

(1) I don't see any subtleties of difference, Mav. They just seem to be two ways of saying the same thing.

(2) A pencil is used to write letters/ a pencil is used for writing letters. A tractor is used to harrow fields/ a tractor is used for harrowing fields.

Yes, looks like ut works.


PS: '+ to + bare infinitive', or '+ infinitive', Pieanne.

  
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pieanne  #76233  Thu, 24 Feb 05 08:39 AM
There has to be a "to" before the infinitive,right? Because in Maverick's last post, 2) , there isn't one.
  
Casi  #76250  Thu, 24 Feb 05 10:14 AM

This knife is used [in order] to cut bread.
This knife is used for [the purpose of] cutting bread.


Maverick, both "to cut" and "for cutting" function as adverbs of purpose (e.g., Why is the knife used? What's its purpose?). They just express it in a different way.

Cf. quasi-modal "used to": This knife used to cut bread, but it doesn't any more.

I like MM's examples. The bits in brackets [. . .] are mine:

MM wrote:
(2) A pencil is used [in order] to write letters/ a pencil is used for [the purpose of ]writing letters. A tractor is used [in order] to harrow fields/ a tractor is used for [the purpose of] harrowing fields.



  
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Mister Micawber  #76251  Thu, 24 Feb 05 10:14 AM

Ah, I see, Pieanne. A typo: he meant '+ for + -ing', I'm sure:

'2) So if I have an inanimate subject, both the following are OK?
(inanimate)S + is used + to + bare infinitive
(inanimate)S + is used + for + -ing.

.. at least, that's what I mean.

  
Casi  #76256  Thu, 24 Feb 05 10:40 AM
Maverick wrote:
What's the difference? (if possible)
1. I am used to working alone
2. I am used to work alone


In addition (and sorry for the tag),

There are three variations:

A. "be used to" is a set phrase, and the preposition "to" takes a nominal as its object. If the object is an event, -ing is added, and if the object is a non-event (a thing), then -ing is not added:

I am used to working. (gerund)
I am used to the job. (noun)

B. "be used" is also a set phrase, and to that structure we can add the prepositions "to" and "for" to express an adverb of purpose:

The knife is used for. . . .
The knife is used to. . . .

C. "used to" is also a set phrase, but the word "to" is not a preposition. It's an infinitive marker. It's object is a base verb:

I used to work. (base verb)
I used to working. (continuous verb; ungrammatical)
I used to the job. (noun; ungrammatical)

In short, the variations are as follows:

be used to (habit) + nominal
be used (instrument) + to or for
used to (but no longer) + base verb

As for your original sentence, specifically the ungrammaticality of 2. (please see below), "to work" is an infinitive verb, and if you'll notice above "used to" + base verb doesn't take "be", so in order to correct 2. we have to delete "am":

1. I am used to working alone. (be used to + nominal)
2. *I am used to work alone. => I used to work alone. (used to + base verb)





  
maverick88  #76279  Thu, 24 Feb 05 01:47 PM
Thank you all very much!!! at long last I understood the point...Smile [:)]

P.S.: As Mr.M. said I really had a typo concerning the "ing" there...
  
pieanne  #76303  Thu, 24 Feb 05 03:20 PM
We do agree, Mr C.!
  
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