Hello friends
I wish to know "Why 'have' is used after I instead of 'has'.
Because otherwise we use "have" after plurals (they, we, etc.) and "has" after singulars (he, she, it). Why then we use "have" after I (singular).
Is it an exception or there is some specific rule regarding this?
e.g. We say "I have got a pen". Why not "I has got a pen".
Thanks
David