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MrPedantic  +  76854 Sat, 26 Feb 05 04:40 PM
I wanted to know that I was worth [the effort that it takes] driving 10 miles in the rain to get it.

It’s true that rewriting a passage can improve the grammar (e.g. ‘…the effort that it takes to drive 10 miles in the rain…’). And ‘taking liberties’ can indeed produce a new question. But I’m not convinced ‘it’s worth £10’ is the same as ‘it’s worth the effort of paying £10’.

To my mind, the writer of the original passage has confused two idioms:

1. It’s worth doing X to do Y.
‘It’s worth driving 10 miles in the rain to get a [piece of pie].’

2. X is worth doing Y for.
‘A piece of pie is worth driving 10 miles in the rain for.’
‘I was worth driving 10 miles in the rain for.’

Put them together and you get:

‘I was worth /driving 10 miles in the rain/ to get [a piece of pie].

i.e. there are now 3 terms in the equation.

To look at it another way: if we look back at the sentence to which the ‘it’ refers, we find that ‘it’ = ‘what I wanted’. The equation then consists of:

Term A: ‘I’
Term B: ‘driving 10 miles in the rain/ to get what I wanted’.

For the equation to make sense, we must be able to quantify how B differs from:

Term C: ‘driving 10 miles in the rain/ to get what I didn’t want’.
Term D: ‘driving 10 miles in the rain/ to get a new outfit’.
Term E: ‘driving 10 miles in the rain/ to post a question on English Forums’.

I'm not sure we can, unfortunately.

The significant action is ‘driving 10 miles in the rain’. If B ended where I’ve put the ‘/’, there wouldn’t be a problem. ‘I’ would then = ‘driving 10 miles in the rain.’

As it stands, the ‘to get it’ is a mistake: the writer has started in the groove of ‘I was worth X-ing for’, then jumped tracks at the gerund into the groove of ‘it’s worth doing X to do Y’.

MrP
Joined on Tue, Oct 12 2004
Veteran Member 12,592
...opella forensis / adducit febris...
CalifJim  +  76875 Sat, 26 Feb 05 06:14 PM
Mr. P.,

Could you reconsider whether the "for" in "I was worth X-ing for" is a required element of the idiom?

I've been reading this thread with interest, and it occurs to me that the "for" is an artifact of the verb choice for X, not part of the idiom itself. The "for" may go with the verb it follows, not with the idiom itself. The gerund and its accompanying complements and/or preposition, if any, leaves a pronoun trace (P).

(for some person P) to be worth [dying for (P), spending money on (P), asking advice of (P), recommending (P), inviting (P)]

Hence,

He was worth [ dying for, spending money on, asking advice of, recommending, inviting].

-- not constructions like "... was worth spending money on for", etc.

The ambiguity with the subject sentence is that one can drive a person somewhere or one can drive somewhere for a person.

She was worth [driving (P=her) there in the rain, driving there in the rain for (P=her)].

Hence,

I was worth driving 10 miles in the rain for (P=me) to get pie.
OR
I was worth driving (P=me) 10 miles in the rain to get pie.

I'm not sure this sheds any light on the discussion, but I couldn't resist putting in my two cents!

Take care,
California Jim
Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004
California
Veteran Member 22,426
"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
PASTEL  +  76883 Sat, 26 Feb 05 06:59 PM
Thank you in advance, MrP, Jim and JTT.

It seems like this thread is going a bit beyond my understanding. :( I wish to go back to the original point.

Anne, pleased to meet you.
Joined on Thu, Jul 1 2004
Regular Member 547
PASTEL  +  76888 Sat, 26 Feb 05 07:11 PM
MrP, I agree with what you said. I think it makes sense.

JTT, you are amazing! Are you one of editors at Prevention dot com? *chuckles*

I'm interested in your point of view. But honestly I dont' quite understand your points.

I wanted to know that I was worth driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie.


X was worth Y. As in MrP's example, I was worth $10. So "I"="10".

X=I
Y=driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie.

How can X be equivalent to Y? There must be something missing. But later on, I read your another example, "I was worth [the effort that it takes] driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie," I don't think "I" is equivalent "the effort".

I look forward to hearing from you.


Thanks,
Pastel



just the truth  +  76933 Sun, 27 Feb 05 05:43 AM
X was worth Y. As in MrP's example, I was worth $10. So "I"="10".

X=I
Y=driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie.

How can X be equivalent to Y? There must be something missing. But later on, I read your another example, "I was worth [the effort that it takes] driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie," I don't think "I" is equivalent "the effort".


First, there is a mistaken assumption on Mr P's part that you can equate things in language in the manner that you equate things in mathematics. Language has its own set of logic and it isn't determined by the logic of math.

This is the same sort of ill-conceived thinking that got the PGs in so much trouble wrt double negatives. They erroneously extended concepts of math to language.

Language has many potential figurative meanings. "I gave her ..." isn't glossed by normal human beings as being equivalent to, "I actually picked her up and gave her", though that meaning could actually occur in life and language.

This example is no different than the other hundreds of 'figurative' meanings that could be misread by someone with too much time on his hands and too many trips to the parlor for sherry.

While this may be worthy of an inclusion in a grammar like Fowler's, it has no place in the study of language.

"A prescriptive grammar can be abused by those ... who try to tell others what a form ought to mean rather than the meaning understood in general usage." [The Grammar Book, pg 9]

By the same token, "A prescriptive grammarIAN can abuse ... "
Joined on Mon, Dec 27 2004
Regular Member 849
PASTEL  +  76953 Sun, 27 Feb 05 08:24 AM
I wanted to know that I was worth driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie.

First, there is a mistaken assumption on Mr P's part that you can equate things in language in the manner that you equate things in mathematics. Language has its own set of logic and it isn't determined by the logic of math.

This is the same sort of ill-conceived thinking that got the PGs in so much trouble wrt double negatives. They erroneously extended concepts of math to language.
=============

True. Other than what you said, I'd like to add my two cents worth.

From a point of view of a native speaker, he might not completely agree with what the grammar or the grammarians had prescribed, but he might agree with what he feels about his first language. Hence, descriptive grammar and grammarians.

Back to our previous question, "it" is a possible answer but "I" is more likely. Do you mean both are fine? I think "it" is more possible to me because of years of *ill-conceived* thinking I have been exposed to.



Casi  +  76971 Sun, 27 Feb 05 10:33 AM
I wanted to know that I was worth driving 10 miles in the rain to get a piece of lemon meringue pie. Once I did that, I know the pie was unimportant.


1. If someone else drove ten miles to get pie for you, then I wanted to know if I was worth the ten mile drive to get pie is fine. (Cf. You are worth it; X = Y) But given our context above, "I" is awkward. You did the driving.

2a. "not" is an adverb. It modifies verbs; it occurs after the auxiliary:

The pie was not important.

"not" negates the copular equation: X is Y becomes X is not Y.

2b. "un-" is an affix, notably a prefix, and it modifies adjectives:

The pie was unimportant.

"un-" negates the adjective: X is Y becomes X is unY.

The difference between 2a. and 2b. has to do with modification. "not" negates the verb, whereas "un-" in negating the subject complement, negates the subject, while the copular construct remains unchanged (i.e., is):

Max is unhealthy. (Max is this: unhealthy)
Max is not healthy. (That Max is healthy is false)






Joined on Sat, Sep 25 2004
Regular Member 547
PASTEL  +  76975 Sun, 27 Feb 05 10:53 AM
Hi, Cassie!

It would make much sense if the she weren't the driver herself. I re-read the article and I'd say the author wasn't saying things clear.

"We just drove 10 miles in the pouring rain, and you only want three bites?" says the husband.

Who's the driver that caused a comprehension problem?

So now I'd say both are okay depending on how one interpretes it. If she weren't in the car, the husband would be VERY considerate and romantic. If she was in the car that night, I'm glad that she knew it was worth doing it.


Thanks,
Pastel
pieanne  +  77004 Sun, 27 Feb 05 01:59 PM
I remember reading the following on a Snoopy mug:
"I'm worth nothing before coffee break" (which is quite true).
It's in the same kind of line, isn't it?
Joined on Thu, Jan 20 2005
South of France ...But I'm Belgian!
Veteran Member 7,517
I'm glad to help, but I'm not a native! And please excuse my typos...
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