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This question is Not Answered
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Guest
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85694
Fri, 01 Apr 05 02:35 PM
Hi, Which of the following sentences is correct:
1) He is gone out of the house
2) He has gone out of the house
Thank you.
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MrPedantic
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Sat, 02 Apr 05 02:34 AM
Hello Guest
Both are correct.
Some intransitive verbs (especially go, come, become, change) can use the auxiliary BE instead of HAVE in the present perfect and past perfect.
They don't mean exactly the same thing: sentence #1 puts more stress on the state of 'going out of the house', and sentence #2, on the time of going; e.g.
1. He was gone before I got there.
[indicates state of 'being gone']
2. He had gone before I got there
[indicates relative time of 'being gone']
MrP
Joined on
Tue, Oct 12 2004
Veteran Member
12,592
...opella forensis / adducit febris...
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CalifJim
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85898
Sat, 02 Apr 05 07:16 AM
Hello, Mr. P.,
Is that a British thing? "BE gone" with a prepositional phrase of location doesn't seem to be grammatical in AmE.
?*Father is gone onto the roof to repair it.
?*Jane was gone to the supermarket for two hours.
?*Peter is gone away from the house just now.
They sound almost Biblical to me ("Christ is risen").
CJ
Joined on
Mon, Aug 2 2004
California
Veteran Member
22,403
"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
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MrPedantic
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Sat, 02 Apr 05 12:12 PM
Hello CJ
Yes, I think you're right. I spoke too soon.
I find I can say e.g.
1. 'Have you taken my car keys?'
'No, why?'
'Well, I thought I'd left them in the kitchen. But I just looked there, and they're gone.
But, as you say, if you modify it with a locative phrase, it does begin to sound a little strange:
2. 'Where's MissQ?'
'She must still be in the bathroom.'
'No, I've just looked there.'
'Well, in that case, maybe she is gone to the hypermarket, for a fresh keg of vodka.'
(It seems to cry out for 'gone unto the hypermarket'.)
So perhaps it only works when it expresses a state, rather than an action.
How does this one sound to you, for instance? It seems ok to me; but maybe my ears need sluicing:
3. He was gone for two weeks.
MrP
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MrPedantic
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Sat, 02 Apr 05 12:14 PM
Hello Guest
After reading CJ's post, I'd like to change my previous answer:
1) He is gone out of the house.
2) He has gone out of the house.
Both are grammatically correct; but the first sentence is archaic.
MrP
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pieanne
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85976
Sat, 02 Apr 05 12:20 PM
Hello!
Well I had found the "is gone out of the house" pretty strange... I wanted to advise to leave the "out of the house" out.
My ears (but then they're only Belgian) are not offended by
she is gone, she was gone, will be gone but only if there's no mention of the place she's gone to.
"she will be gone by the time you arrive" sounds OK (no mention of where)
"she has gone to the hypermarket" too (HAS gone + place)
If I may add, I hope she'll be back soon with the vodka.
Joined on
Thu, Jan 20 2005
South of France ...But I'm Belgian!
Veteran Member
7,517
I'm glad to help, but I'm not a native! And please excuse my typos...
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MrPedantic
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Sat, 02 Apr 05 12:34 PM
If I know MissQ, there won't be much left for us, when she gets back.
Not that I'm saying I know MissQ that well (he added hastily).
MrP
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pieanne
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86038
Sat, 02 Apr 05 04:15 PM
Too bad...
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CalifJim
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Sat, 02 Apr 05 05:52 PM
Yes, I agree, Mr. P. "He was gone for two weeks" is fine, while "He was gone for butter and eggs (and that perennial favorite, vodka)" and "He was gone into hiding for two weeks" are both exceedingly infelicitous to my ear, (which is only American, of course, pace Pieanne)!
Jim
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