Is this correct?

I was wondering whether the following expressions are correct in English.

"I long have waited..."

"It long has been used for..."

I know that the form "I have waited long", "It has long been used for" is used more commonly, but I'm quite certain I've read the first form of the phrase as well. I wish to know if the first phrase is incorrect, or simply not used often.

Thanks in advance.

Sorry, I tried to respond to this and the computer crashed.

While both may be grammatically correct (and I'm not sure whether they are or they aren't), neither sounds natural, although the first could be used poetically. Long have I waited for this moment, I have long waited for this moment... etc.  Sounds like you are giving a toast, or writing a poem.

The second one simply sounds wrong. If I were your proofreader, I'd correct it.