Is this subjunctive?

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CalifJim  #380139  Fri, 15 Jun 07 08:54 PM
In Spanish, (which has a clearly defined subjunctive,) the verb "to be" would always take the indicative in that context as it is merely a description

Bokeh,
Actually, it would be the same as in English; it's a case of a  requirement:  that ballots be printed, not that they are printed.  The translation will have something like:  ... que las papeletas se impriman ... (subjunctive).  The verb to be would not likely occur in the Spanish version, but if it did, it would be the subjunctive seanque ... sean impresas.  Being located in a descriptive phrase has nothing to do with it.
But, as you correctly say, this is not the place to discuss Spanish, so all I can suggest is that you ask this question on a couple of Spanish forums, and see what they say there.  PM me if you find out anything interesting!

CJ

  
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Bokeh  #380195  Sat, 16 Jun 07 12:01 AM
 CalifJim wrote:
all I can suggest is that you ask this question on a couple of Spanish forums
Hi CJ,

I wasn't asking a question about Spanish; it's my second language, and as Cool Breeze points out thinking about one language can often be a helpful tool in understanding another. My point about Amy's sentence was that although it sounds perfectly natural to me in English I can't think of any way to shoehorn the subjunctive into a corresponding sentence in Spanish without it sounding contrived. What's unusual about that is it's normally the other way around.
  
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Grammarian-bot  #380238  Sat, 16 Jun 07 03:11 AM
 Cool Breeze wrote:
 Grammarian-bot wrote:
Congress is debating a bill requiring certain employers to provide workers with unpaid leave so that they can care for sick or newborn children.

I have a serious problem with deciding when to use prepositions before verbs and when not to. Any help/suggestions.

Hi GB

The to in your sentence isn't a preposition. It's a particle that is part of the infinitive. As a rule to is used

1. after verbs: I want to go there.
2. after nouns: I had an opportunity to visit Cairo.
3. after adjectives: It's easy to speak English.

Some common cases in which to is omitted:

1. after do, does, did: Did you see him? I do like that hat!
2. after a defective/modal auxiliary: I will see him tomorrow. Can you come with us?
3. after a verb denoting perception in the active voice: I heard him say that. I didn't see him come.
But: He was seen to come.
4. after make in the active voice: It made me smile. John's mother made him do his homework.
But: John was made to do his homework.
5. after let: Let me go! (Let is not used in the passive voice; allow or permit should be used instead: I was allowed/permitted to go out.
6. In question-like exclamations beginning with why if a verb follows immediately: Why do it now? Why not do it now?

There are other cases but you'll be just fine with these for a start.

If to is a preposition before a verb, the verb must have an ing-ending:

I am used to warm weather. (To is a preposition, we can tell that from the fact that warm is an adjective and weather is a noun.)
So: I am used to getting up early.

Cheers
CB


Great Job every one. Thanks a lot.

Cool Breeze, this post goes directly on my desktop.

Thanks a zillion.

GB
  
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CalifJim  #380243  Sat, 16 Jun 07 03:38 AM
The present subjunctive after require  is considered correct by all traditional grammarians in your example. There is nothing wrong with the indicative either. Both are correct.
CB,

Your acceptance of the indicative surprises me.  I find it jarring!

... a bill requiring that ballots are printed ...    Ick! [+o(]

Smile [:)]
CJ

  
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