I've called her for a year

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paco2004

#163505 Sun, 27 Nov 05 08:15 PM

Hello guys

I was told in school days we shouldn't say "I've called her for a year" to mean "I have a one-year experience of talking with her habitually through a phone", because, according to my teacher, "call (phone)" is a one-time activity verb. He told us we should say "I've been calling her for a year" instead. But quite recently I was surprised to hear from some native speakers that "I've called her for a year" is very natural to them, though some of them said "I've been calling her for a year" is a bit better. What do you think about it? Any comment is welcome.

paco

paco2004

Joined on Wed, Nov 17 2004

Senior Member (4,095)

In Japan today even dogs are learning how to bow-wow in English.

Verbs

davkett

#163534 Sun, 27 Nov 05 09:44 PM

'I've called her for a year' sounds natural enough to me, (but not 'talked with her through a phone'-- it would be 'talked with her by phone'). I don't quite get the 'one-time activity' rule with 'called'. Is there such a thing as a 'one-time' verb?-- even 'died', in the right context, can be a repeat activity.

davkett

Joined on Tue, Jun 7 2005

Pennsylvania, USA

Senior Member (2,788)

"The rose stays fresh in its name..." -Bernard of Morlay

Verbs

CalifJim

#163539 Sun, 27 Nov 05 09:56 PM

"I've called her for a year" does indeed seem anomalous to me.
I definitely prefer "I've been calling her for a year".

CalifJim

Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004

California

Veteran Member (17,765)

"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche

paco2004

#163544 Sun, 27 Nov 05 10:03 PM

Hi Davkett

Thank you for the comment and the correction of "through a phone" to "by phone". I heard from some people "I have called her for a year" is suitable to unsuccessful tries like "I have called her for a year, but to no avail". If I have really contacts with her, according to them, I have to say "I've been calling her for a year". How about this opinion? By the way I meant "a dynamic or non-stative verb" by "a one-time verb".

paco

paco2004

paco2004

#163548 Sun, 27 Nov 05 10:11 PM

Hi CJ

Thank you for the comment. I'm now afraid my English grammar knowledge is getting obsolete because people's usage of English is changing very rapidly even in such basic matters like this.

paco

paco2004

Grammar, English Grammar

MrPedantic

#163562 Sun, 27 Nov 05 11:06 PM

I find it a little strange. I'd vote for the progressive form too.

With a verb that suggests a continuous action, it might work:

1. I've already interrogated the suspect for an hour. There's no way she's going to talk. But if you want to try applying the excruciatingly badly written TEFL exercises, sure, be my guest...

<people's usage of English is changing very rapidly>

It can change even during the course of a thread.

MrP

MrPedantic

Joined on Tue, Oct 12 2004

Veteran Member (12,168)

...opella forensis / adducit febris...

Verbs, TEFL

davkett

#163629 Mon, 28 Nov 05 04:13 AM

Paco2004 wrote:

I heard from some people "I have called her for a year" is suitable to unsuccessful tries like "I have called her for a year, but to no avail". If I have really contacts with her, according to them, I have to say "I've been calling her for a year". How about this opinion?

Something like that may have gone through my mind as I tried to hear the phrase being said to me. Or, in this sense: 'I've called her. She's never called me.'

davkett