Hi,
Please tell me if what I am confused about seems to have bits of validity.
Communication using spoken language
Here, the word 'language' seems to imply any form of communication, not particularily in reference to the language used by particular countries. I agree.
But a common sense tells us that what follows 'spoken' should be the language that is spoken in a particular country, doesn't it? No. Why do you think that? Consider a general statement like 'All human beings can communicate by both spoken language and written language'. Do you think there is something wrong with this?
Best wishes, Clive