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hanuman_2000
#78578 Sat, 05 Mar 05 04:44 AM
Sir,
1.I have done it once a day for five years now.
2.I have done it once a day for five years.
What are the differences in meaning between (1) and (2).
Thanks.
hanuman_2000
Joined on Thu, Aug 12 2004
INDIA
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just the truth
#78601 Sat, 05 Mar 05 06:45 AM
#1 is more emphatic and #2 is more neutral.
just the truth
Joined on Mon, Dec 27 2004
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what does "Opponents of abstinence "...
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What "there" means in this extract?
what does sentence gave mean?
Après nous le déluge
Can someone help me understand?
Meaning
Meaning
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meaning
Meaning
MrPedantic
#78783 Sun, 06 Mar 05 12:30 AM
It's a fine distinction. But I would say that 'now' is attached when we want to give less emphasis to a repeated action:
'What time do you get up in the morning?'
'4 am.'
'4 am! But that's terrible! Doesn't it make you very tired?'
'Oh, not really. I'm used to it. I've done it every day for five years now.'
Such sentences are most likely to occur as additional information about another fact.
So sentence #1 is less emphatic about the information it contains. Sentence #2, on the other hand, is the 'neutral' form of the sentence. You could use it in most contexts.
MrP
MrPedantic
Joined on Tue, Oct 12 2004
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...opella forensis / adducit febris...
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