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Mega Verb Phrase: "would have had to have been eating"

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Anonymous  #212711  Wed, 05 Apr 06 05:58 PM

Just trying to get my head around this long verb phrase; can anyone help me break it down into its elements?

Working backwards, I can see that "have been eating" is the present perfect continuous form.

Presumably, the preceding "had to" is just a periphrastic modal meaning the same as "must".

What, then, is the "would have" element? A conditional modal? But if so, it surely wouldn't fit the ordererd pattern for verb groups: MODAL, PERFECT (have), PROGRESSIVE (be), PASSIVE (be), MAIN VERB, because "had to" is a modal as well. And you can't have two modals, in a verb group, surely? Also, where (in the above pattern) does the "have" that follows "would" fit in?

Many thanks for your time.

Alex

  
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Randy_Tam  #213727  Sun, 09 Apr 06 09:05 AM

I presume that you have gone onto the wrong track. There literally exist 2 verb phrases here. What I mean is that one is given 'inflection' (ie. Subject Agreement + Tense + Aspect) and the other only given 'Tense' (and all that goes with it: Tense, Agreement with Object, etc.)

To make it down to earth, the phrase (actually the entire Agreement Phrase, SPEC exclusive), disregarding peculiarities in tense and aspect assignment, resembles: have to eat. What appears 'larger' is not the semantic features of the Verb Phrase, but actually the functional features of it. I would illustrate the 'mega phrase' this way (Move and Merge are ignored, for simplicity's sake. Only spelt out product is considered):

[ Agr P [SPEC omitted] [Agr' [Agr, Mood: conditional, Aspect: perfect] [VP would have had] [TP [T to, Aspect: Perfective, Progressive] [VP have been eating]]

Where the Main Verb 'have' (represented as 'had' in the VP shell) takes a TP as its obligatory complement.

I don't think 'have to' is a modal verb, but closer to a Main Verb taking TP as an obligatory complement, because in modal verbs, tense is usually covert (save 'can').

  
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Philip  #218757  Sat, 22 Apr 06 04:37 PM
 Anonymous wrote:

Just trying to get my head around this long verb phrase; can anyone help me break it down into its elements?

Working backwards, I can see that "have been eating" is the present perfect continuous form.

Presumably, the preceding "had to" is just a periphrastic modal meaning the same as "must".

What, then, is the "would have" element? A conditional modal? But if so, it surely wouldn't fit the ordererd pattern for verb groups: MODAL, PERFECT (have), PROGRESSIVE (be), PASSIVE (be), MAIN VERB, because "had to" is a modal as well. And you can't have two modals, in a verb group, surely? Also, where (in the above pattern) does the "have" that follows "would" fit in?

Many thanks for your time.

Alex

Simply put, it's just "too much verb".  Simplify it to "he would have had to be eating" or "he would have to have been eating" and I think you'll be able to identify the elements more easily.  My first example certainly flows better off my tongue than the second one.
  
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Anonymous  #402519  Thu, 09 Aug 07 06:32 PM

hi, Im Sandy, and im learning english, im from mexico, in my class we are trying to understand how to use "would have had" and when i have to use it, can you help me to resolve this question??? thank you so much...

  
CalifJim  #402975  Fri, 10 Aug 07 10:26 PM
Alex,

Here's the mistake.
because "had to" is a modal as well
It's sometimes called a 'semi-modal', because it is like the modal must in meaning.  Nevertheless, its grammar is exactly the same as for any non-modal verb, like want, like, or prefer.

would have wanted to have seen
would have liked to have been invited
would have preferred to have been lying on a beach


would have + [past participle]  Modal perfect tense.
had   Past participle of to have.  The 'lexical' verb of the whole verb phrase.
to have been eating.  Infinitive.  Specifically, the perfect progressive infinitive.

CJ

  
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Anonymous  #421358  Thu, 20 Sep 07 03:03 AM

I'm curious about how this phrasing: "would have had to have been," differs from the phrasing: "would have to have been."  I know that the additional "had" changes the sentence in some form or another, but I can't quite figure out how--or what different meanings the two phrases carry.

Could you provide an explanation and an example of how two similarly worded independent clauses would differ--both in form and meaning--if one were used rather than the other?

  
English Toolbox Co.  #424883  Fri, 28 Sep 07 07:42 PM

It would seem that you'd use the past perfect form "had to" when the action preceded another action.  Example: "The movie started at 8:00, but my stupid brother-in-law booked a table in a restaurant for 7:00.  To get to the movie on time, we would have had to have been eating at 7:00, not just sitting down at our table."  Here, the eating precedes seeing the movie.

In the case of "would have to have been," it seems that this follows another action rather than precedes it.  Example: "You would have to have been a fool to invest in internet stocks after the crash in 2001."  Here, the crash comes first and the investing second.

I'm confident someone will point out any errors in my reasoning... .  Big Smile [:D]

  
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Anonymous  #473149  Tue, 05 Feb 08 08:52 PM
Hi there,

Anyone help me about use of have had and world/should/could/might have had.

Thanks,
  
Anonymous  #516464  Wed, 21 May 08 11:11 AM
"Simply put, it's just "too much verb".  Simplify it to "he would have had to be eating" or "he would have to have been eating" and I think you'll be able to identify the elements more easily.  My first example certainly flows better off my tongue than the second one."

I think examples of answers, as mentioned above, are misleading and confusing.  I would prefer to use a clasical approach for your answer...

for example:  One could rather say,  " he had most likely/probably been eating when he vomited" ("he would have had to be eating") or "he must have been eating if he vomited".("he would have to have been eating").

The Enlish Lord has Spoken 

  
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