Anonymous  +  717367 Tue, 05 May 09 11:17 PM Hi. Would you say the following is correct?     I think the modal "could" is used for the past of the modal "can" here. Doesn't "could" express something she was able to do at a moment? If so, would you say this is not within the domain of the modal "could" use (that is, not correct in terms of its use)? When she came home yesterday, she could tell he was angry. Yesterday, she could tell he was angry. Anonymous Modals

	Clive  +  717382 Tue, 05 May 09 11:23 PM Hi, Both of your examples are fine.   As regards 'at a moment', you seem to have the wrong idea. There's nothing wrong with saying something like Last year, I could walk to work. However, this year I can't, because I moved.   Best wishes, Clive Clive Joined on Thu, Oct 28 2004 Canada Veteran Member 29,594 El tango argentino es un pensamiento triste que se puede bailar (The tango argentino is a sad thought which can be danced) Enrique Santos Discépolo Regards

	AlpheccaStars  +  717395 Tue, 05 May 09 11:27 PM Could is the past form of the auxilliary verb (modal)  "can" (meaning be able to).  It is used as a modal in past tense forms. When I was younger, I could run a mile in six minutes. Your sentences are fine examples. Anonymous “ When she came home yesterday, she could tell he was angry. Yesterday, she could tell he was angry. ” AlpheccaStars Joined on Sun, Oct 12 2008 Senior Member 3,508 The pen is mightier than the sword. Edward Bulwer-Lytton (1803-1873) Tenses, Modals, Past Tenses, Sentences

	CalifJim  +  717749 Wed, 06 May 09 04:28 AM Anonymous “ I think the modal "could" is used for the past of the modal "can" here.” Yes. Anonymous “Doesn't "could" express something she was able to do at a moment?” Yes, in a way, but not exactly.  The idiom "can tell" is like "know" (by observing).  So if she "could tell", she "knew" (by observing).  This is not the same as "find out", which is the more "momentary" counterpart of "know". Anonymous “If so, would you say this is not within the domain of the modal "could" use (that is, not correct in terms of its use)?” No.  It is correct.  There is no implication that she succeeded at anything.  She did not literally succeed at telling anybody anything.  In fact, she wasn't even trying to tell anybody anything.  The idiomatic nature of "can tell" must be taken into consideration in analyzing this sentence. CJ CalifJim Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004 California Veteran Member 22,389 "There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche Modals, Idioms, Sentences