Hi Teachers
Is it possible for modal verbs (shall,should, will, would, may, might) to be followed by "to" ?
E.g: Mr. Bahnken also said the death penalty should to be pursued for those found guilty of killing his brother
A portion of the proceeds from the sale of its paper and timber assets would to be used to return equity to shareholders
Shouldn't it be ( should be, would be), is it even common for native speaker? If yes what is the difference between "be" alone and "to be" in this context
And in the case of "have, has,is" Is this even correct? " you don't have be intimidated by the two-gigabyte jargon" "What WOW has done better than other games is be able to appeal to both audience"
Shouldn't it be "have to be" and "is to be" or"being"? what is the difference?
Thanks a lot