anniesse  +  27278 Wed, 07 Apr 04 11:52 PM I'm very confused about the way people use "myself". As far as I know it can be used as reflexive or intensive pronoun, but sometimes people say "It was Vince, Sharon and myself" or "Vince, Sharon and myself went to a restaurant". This way it doesn't look like either on. Is this usage correct? Thank you anniesse Nouns, Pronouns

	Best answer by Guest  +  37949 Sun, 18 Jul 04 07:10 AM I'm no expert on the subject. But I am quite sure that it should be replaced with the pronoun 'I' , not 'me' as was suggested. It would be incorrec to say 'Shelley and me went to the beach. ' Not only does it sound bad, the use of 'me' as the subject is wrong. It can only be used in the accusative form or more commonly known as the object of the verb. I am pretty sure that it should be 'I' but if anyone is willing to doubt me on this, drop me a line. (I'm 99.9% sure i'm correct, but maybe there is some technicality that I am missing. Guest

	rommie  +  27305 Thu, 08 Apr 04 08:59 AM Well spotted, Anniesse. Both of the examples you cite are grammatically incorrect. In both of the above examples, "myself" should be replaced with "me". Rommie rommie Joined on Mon, Jan 26 2004 Earth orbit Regular Member 606

	anniesse  +  27375 Thu, 08 Apr 04 11:32 PM Thanks for the response. I'd like to point out though that I thought "myself" in these examples should be replaced with "I". Can I ask you what guidelines you used to answer my question. Thank you again, Anna anniesse

	mask  +  37969 Sun, 18 Jul 04 11:53 AM In the first of the sentences that we're discussing, I/me was used not as object but as subject complement. In this postition usage varies, although the object form seems to be more common. "It was I" vs "It was me" When it comes to the second one, you are right that me is "wrong". mask Joined on Sun, Feb 22 2004 Junior Member 56

	CalifJim  +  119987 Thu, 21 Jul 05 04:39 AM The so-called object pronouns are actually acceptable in the "predicate nominative" position according to many modern grammarians.  Some say that it has been only the tendency of English grammarians throughout the centuries to create rules for English in imitation Latin grammar that has led to the idea that the object pronouns are wrong after the verb "to be".  The advice more recently is to abandon grammatical explanations based on Latin.  In conformance with this view perhaps we should begin to call the "object pronouns" "post-verbal pronouns"! Note that in practical terms, the expression in everyday conversation is often "I'm the one who ...", where the choice of "I" or "me" doesn't even arise. CJ CalifJim Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004 California Veteran Member 22,465 "There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche Grammar, Verbs, Conversations, Nouns, Pronouns, Predicates, Nominative