Forums · General English Grammar & Vocabulary, Listening & Speaking · General English Grammar Questions
In the following example I chose the second option, but want to know why third option is wrong- if it is.
Although the company’s founders certainly hoped that incorporating would increase their profit margin, no one, not even the founders, didn’t expect that the value of the stock would appreciate so quickly.
* no one, not even the founders, didn’t expect
* no one, not even the founders, expected
* nobody, not even the founders, expected
* nobody, not even the founders, didn’t expect
* no one, even the founders, expected
I see no difference in meaning or correctness between Nos. 2 and 3. I don't particularly like a that-clause after expect and that's why I would prefer:
... expected the value of the stock to appreciate so quickly.
Nobody of is always wrong. That's the only case in which you must use no one:
No one of these men knows it.
There are people who don't like no one of and they insist on:
None of these men know it.
Do you mean to say, we should use no one only when its followed by of, as nobody of is always wrong. By that logic isnt 3rd option, which starts with nobody is correct.
IndamarDo you mean to say, we should use no one only when its followed by of, as nobody of is always wrong. By that logic isnt 3rd option, which starts with nobody is correct.With respect, Indamar, your reading comprehension could be better. Read my post again, please. The idea is: no one and nobody are interchangeable (see sentences 2 and 3 in your first post). The only situation where no one must be used is no one of:
No one / Nobody knows it.
I saw no one / nobody there.
out of 5 options, only 1 is correct, and in this case no one is considered instead of nobody.... so "of" is not the only difference .
One possibility I see is that nobody alone cannot be used, but no one can be. Correct me if I am wrong?
Anonymousout of 5 options, only 1 is correct, and in this case no one is considered instead of nobody.... so "of" is not the only difference .I have already told you twice that I consider two of the five alternatives correct. If anyone thinks differently, there's nothing much I can do about it. You'll get other members' opinions by doing a search with the search engine in the top right-hand corner of the page. Type nobody in the box and press 'Search'.
If you needed to make some strange situation in which the double negative was intended, you could, as in Nobody didn't expect it, so their feigned surpise fooled no one. However, unless that was the meaning (and if so, I would write "Everyone expected it) the double negatives are wrong.
thanks for your contribution on the subject matter and I appreciate your efforts in helping me out. In reality this question is from GMAT real exam, where the answer is B i.e. use of no one. It means GMAT examiners have considered nobody wrong.
Once again thanks for giving your valuable time, soon I will come with more questions.
Anonymous:"No one" is considered a more formal usage than "nobody." That's really the only difference.
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