Forums · General English Grammar & Vocabulary, Listening & Speaking · General English Grammar Questions
For instance, we can say:
"It is one of those who are angry,"
"It is one of whom are angry."
In "one of those" either one or those can be a subject, but in "one of whom" only "one" is a subject.
Am I right?
"Nobody in this group is angry. It is one of those who is angry." (Note that "who" may be singular or plural.) This time, "one" is still the verb complement. "Who is angry" is still a relative clause. The chief difference between these two interpretations lies in the answer to the question, "In the relative clause, what does "who" refer to?" In the first interpretation it refers to "those." In the second one it refers to "one." But that doesn't entitle "those" and "one" to be called subjects.
Your sentence "It is one of whom are angry" has a couple of things wrong with it.
"One" is now the bona fide subject of the clause, "one of whom is angry." "Whom" is object of the preposition "of," but unfortunately it has nothing to refer to.
A group of people are partying in the next room, one of whom is angry. In this sentence, "whom" refers to "group."
Re one of those who / one of whom, the difference is often only a technicality. She decided to give it to one of those who love her. She decided to give it to one of those whom she loves.
The key lies in the subject and object of the clauses. In "who love her," "who" is the subject, "love" is the verb, and "her" is the object. In "whom she loves," "she" is the subject, "loves" is the verb, and "whom" is the object.
"Who" and "she" are nominative case, "whom" and "her" are objective case.
Best regards, - A.
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