Anonymous  +  143174 Fri, 30 Sep 05 05:59 AM Today, my english teacher told me that any form of the verb "to be" is passive voice.  I was always under the impression that "to be" verbs are usually linking verbs, but that they can also be passive voice.  For example, she said in this sentence:   A time of great savagery in the world was World War II both in countries throughout the world and in concentration camps.   that "was" is passive voice.  I thought this was a linking verb, with "time" being the subject and "of great savagery" and "in the world" being prespositional phrases acting as adjectives and "World War II" being the direct object.    Is she right or am I right?   Thanks in advance.  I appreciate any help. Anonymous Verbs, Direct Objects

	CalifJim  +  143175 Fri, 30 Sep 05 06:08 AM You are right; she is wrong. It is not the forms of "to be" in itself that creates passive voice, but the forms of "to be" followed by a past participle. CJ CalifJim Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004 California Veteran Member 22,391 "There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche

	CalifJim  +  143176 Fri, 30 Sep 05 06:15 AM A sentence with a linking verb never has a direct object, however, so you are wrong about that part of it.  A linking verb links a subject to a (predicate) noun or (predicate) adjective, not to a direct object.  You must have a transitive verb to have a direct object.  "to be" is not transitive, that is, it is not a verb which depicts an action upon some entity the way "eat" 'acts on' "cake" ("eat cake" - verb, direct object) and the way "drive" 'acts on' "a car" ("drive a car" - verb, direct object), and so on. (To be a cake or to be a car is not to act in any way upon the cake or car.) CJ CalifJim Verbs, Nouns, Predicates, Direct Objects