In another thread, where the difference between 'I wish I was' and 'I wish I were' was being discussed, a member made the following interesting comment:
| The older prescriptive grammars were simply wrong. Their analysis was wrong and the proof they offered was wrong. It was just one more rule that was wrong from the outset. The rule actually changed hundreds of years ago and yet these prescriptive grammars kept on misanalyzing this for centuries. |
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I've only been a member of this forum for a few months; but I've quite often heard such comments.
Now I would like to know who these older prescriptive grammarians might be, and what their analyses look like.
(Interestingly, I've often read similar comments in the works of David Crystal and Steven Pinker. Crystal sometimes quotes a brief passage from an original text; but Pinker never seems to, for some reason. I suppose you can't read everything you comment on.)
Anyway, it's all very baffling. Can anyone help? Here's my shopping list, for what it's worth:
1. The names of these older prescriptive grammarians, who have misanalysed the question over 'centuries'.
2. A transcription of a sample analysis.
3. A commentary that explains where the transcribed analysis goes wrong.
4. Details of their 'proofs'.
5. Details of the change in the 'rule', hundreds of years ago.
6. Details of the other 'rule', that was 'wrong from the outset'.
(Qy: Is the outset of the rule in #5 the same as the outset of the rule in #6? Guidance would be appreciated here.)
I look forward to reading a wealth of original material.
MrP