Anonymous  +  372413 Wed, 30 May 07 04:53 AM (1)a predominantly French-speaking community (2)a French-speaking community Is there any difference between these two? I think that (1) means that a large population (for example 70-80 percent) speak French, while, in (2), all the residents in the community speak French. Is this correct? Anonymous Difference Between

	Grammar Geek  +  372428 Wed, 30 May 07 05:42 AM I agree with you. (I'm not so sure about 70-80%, but yes, that's the general idea.) Grammar Geek Joined on Tue, Jan 10 2006 Veteran Member 19,678 Barbara, who answers in American English. My housekeeping skills attest to the truth of the second law of thermodynamics: Left to themselves, things get more and more random!