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Latest post Fri, Jan 13 2006 1:17 AM by MrPedantic. 15 replies.
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jack112  +  176302 Fri, 30 Dec 05 03:44 AM

1. I have never had a problem with my heater draining the battery. Then again, came summer I replaced a fried rectifier. (Is the latter sentence okay with the first sentence with present perfect? Or do I need to use past perfect for the first sentence?)

Thanks.

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Mister Micawber  +  176338 Fri, 30 Dec 05 07:31 AM

Yes, I think you should put the first verb in past perfect, since the fact no longer holds true (if I understand your mechanics aright).


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'The question is,' said Humpty Dumpty, 'which is to be master-- that's all.'
jack112  +  176656 Fri, 30 Dec 05 07:50 PM

1. I have never had a problem with my heater draining the battery except for that summer summer I replaced a fried rectifier. (Is this okay with present perfect? Could I also use past perfect here too?)

Thanks.

MrPedantic  +  176853 Sat, 31 Dec 05 03:02 AM

Interesting. I wonder whether we can say that the "Then again" corrects the present perfect + "never" of the first sentence, as a stylistic device.

Though it is a little unclear and tortuously written. Maybe:

1. I have never had a problem with my heater draining the battery. Then again, last summer I had to replace a fried rectifier.

MrP

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Mister Micawber  +  177987 Mon, 02 Jan 06 12:28 PM

Nice observation, MrP.  In discourse, it could well be.  I would like to see the speaker expostulate more about his poor memory, however.

jack112  +  178682 Wed, 04 Jan 06 01:07 AM

Are both of these correct? If not, why?

1. I have been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one is picking up.

2. I have been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one was picking up. (If this one is incorrect, why so? #1 is right and #1 uses only past tense? Is the structure for #2 supposed to be present perfect + present tense?)

3. I have been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one has been picking up. (Is this one correct? Would you use this one out of all the other ones?)

Thanks.

Anonymous, 3 yr 322 days ago

<Are both of these correct? If not, why?>

You say "both", but you posted three examples.

<1. I have been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one is picking up.>

Correct.

<2. I have been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one was picking up. (If this one is incorrect, why so? #1 is right and #1 uses only past tense? Is the structure for #2 supposed to be present perfect + present tense?)>

Incorrect. "calling for thirty minutes now" means that you are still trying to get through.

<3. I have been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one has been picking up. (Is this one correct? Would you use this one out of all the other ones?)>

Incorrect. If someone had picked up, why would you keep calling? "No one is picking up" talks about a repetitive action.

Mister Micawber  +  178690 Wed, 04 Jan 06 01:47 AM

Well, I definitely like and use #3.  I suppose that #1 is possible in conversation, with the speaker stressing that there has still been no answer right up to now (yet note that I automatically go to present perfect in my explication).  #2 repels me.

MrPedantic  +  179132 Thu, 05 Jan 06 12:26 AM

That's interesting. Maybe there's a BrE/AmE division here. I'd say:

1. I've been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one is answering. ] Fine; neutral.

2. I had been calling them for 30 minutes and no one was answering. ] Fine as modified.

3. I've been calling them for 30 minutes now and no one has been answering. ] Fine; "emphatic" or "pointed" or "through gritted teeth".

MrP

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