Kooyeen  +  468492 Thu, 24 Jan 08 08:38 PM Hi, this is probably a strange question, but... Do pronouns always refer to something that was mentioned before them? Can't they refer to something that comes after, provided it's clear what they refer to? 1 - If you see Janet, tell her I miss her, ok? 2 - If you see her, tell Janet I miss her, ok? Can't I say #2 intead of #1? The meaning is clear in common contexts. Would no native speakers say #2 instead of #1? I am asking this because in my first language pronouns refer to something that is "understood", they are used in place of other nouns. It doesn't matter where those other nouns are placed, although they usally come before the pronoun. Thanks. Kooyeen Joined on Thu, Dec 22 2005 Italy Senior Member 4,933 Parental Advisory / Explicit Posts Nouns, Pronouns

	Avangi  +  468494 Thu, 24 Jan 08 08:43 PM It's done all the time! (You wanna see strange?) Should we change antecedent to postcedent? Avangi Joined on Mon, Nov 19 2007 Veteran Member 7,923 ". . . le plaisir delicieux et toujours nouveau d'une occupation inutile." - Henri de Regnier

	CalifJim  +  468520 Thu, 24 Jan 08 09:51 PM Can't I say #2 intead of #1? Yes. It's the same in English.  The typical pattern is with the noun first, but you can do it with the pronoun first as well. I gave the man who wanted it the book that he asked for. The fact that he isn't bothered by the possibility that he will lose surprises Tom. Which of the men that she saw did Mary criticize? CJ CalifJim Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004 California Veteran Member 22,128 "There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche Nouns, Pronouns

	Kooyeen  +  468523 Thu, 24 Jan 08 10:07 PM Thanks a lot. I decided to ask that because I thought I had read something strange in a thread here, which confused me a little... And I think I'm lucky, because I just tried to search for that thread, and I found it at once! Here it is... I just read it again, and I think that, reading that thread, every learner would understand that putting a pronoun before the noun it refers to is wrong, odd, and confusing. http://www.englishforums.com/English/WhenISeeHimTom/zwqkl/Post.htm Is there something wrong with that thread then? Kooyeen Nouns, Pronouns

	Hoa Thai  +  468536 Thu, 24 Jan 08 11:03 PM  Kooyeen wrote: Thanks a lot. I decided to ask that because I thought I had read something strange in a thread here, which confused me a little... And I think I'm lucky, because I just tried to search for that thread, and I found it at once! Here it is... I just read it again, and I think that, reading that thread, every learner would understand that putting a pronoun before the noun it refers to is wrong, odd, and confusing. http://www.englishforums.com/English/WhenISeeHimTom/zwqkl/Post.htm Is there something wrong with that thread then? Hi Kooyeen, I was the one introducing the 'absolute' idea in 'the strangeness' that you saw. The moderators involved in that thread simply said 'generally' but not 'absolutely' with comments that if a pronoun goes first it could cause potential misunderstanding. In other words, there are acceptable scenarios that a pronoun can come first. But I would reword them my way if I can. (it's just me) Hoa Thai Joined on Mon, Oct 15 2007 Vietnam Contributing Member 1,100 Best Regards - Hoa Thai Nouns, Pronouns