We have partnered with TradePub to bring you free industry magazines and resources - no coupons or credit cards required!
Visit: englishforums.tradepub.com
This question is Not Answered
|
|
|
|
|
|
Guest
+
19977
Thu, 22 Jan 04 09:45 AM
Hello!
I would like to ask you one question.
My friend, who is a native speaker of English, said that the following sentences show a meaning difference.
(1). John accidentally kicked the door open.
(2). John kicked the door accidentally open.
My friend said that sentence (1) means that the door opened because John accidentally kicked it. He also told me that sentence (2) is a bit awkward, but it means that the door accidentally opened because John kicked it. Thus, he states that the different positions of 'accidentally' between (1) and (2) cause such a meaning difference. I am not sure that such a slight meaning difference between (1) and (2) is commonly observed by native speakers of English. Do you agree with my friend's statement about the meaning difference between (1) and (2)?
That is all. I really appreciate your help. Thank you very much!
|
|
|
|
|
suzi,
5 yr 309 days ago
I doptn agree with your friend, I cant see that there is a real semantic difference!
|
|
|
|
|
|
dinosm
+
20025
Fri, 23 Jan 04 01:32 AM
I can't see a difference in meaning between the two sentences either, and the second one does sound a bit weird, as in syntax that you wouldn't normally hear.
Joined on
Fri, Nov 28 2003
Manchester, U.K.
New Member
43
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
pedant
+
20041
Fri, 23 Jan 04 07:51 AM
No difference. Though adverb placement frequently does change meaning (as opposed to changes meaning frequently).
Joined on
Thu, Dec 18 2003
Full Member
104
|
|
|
|
|
Elena,
5 yr 308 days ago
Question from student
Is there a pattern that was followed in sentence 1?
|