Hi Nader

I'm not quite sure I understand what you mean. Has he talking? is wrong. You could say: Has he been talking?

If you are asking whether a have or has question can always be formed by changing the word order, the answer is no. It is safer to use do in the present tense:

Does he have money?
Especially in BrE it is possible to say: Has he [got] money? Without the got, it's not very common, though.

When have means 'eat', 'drink', 'must' etc., do must be used in questions:
Did he have an early breakfast today?
Do you have to talk about it all the time?

When have, has and had are perfect and past perfect auxiliaries, do is never used:
Have you seen him today?
Has he said anything so far?
Had he been there before?

Have you been reading all day?

CB

Nader75 wrote:

Your reply is wonderful Thank you. He has been talking to his friends. is this true ...who has he been talking to..? By the way, take a look at this picture: This formula is from book " TMP( English Course) Essential Grammar in Use Supplementary Exercises. " Jane's been talking to her friend. (Correct. Jane's = Jane has) Who's  she talking to? (Correct. Who's = Who is)

I made some corrections to your text and added a few things to make the meaning clearer. I can't take a look at a book that I don't have.

CB

Nader75 wrote:

Why do you change ? Who has TO Who is ? By the way is this formula is true Why do you change ?

Why do you change?  is correct. I am not changing who has to anything, I am just telling you what who's comes from. It is wrong to say: Who has he talking to? You need a past participle in the perfect tense:

Who has he been talking to? Or:
Who has he talked to?

In the present tense:
Who is he talking to? (= Who is he talking to at this very moment? Right now.)

Both who has and who is become who's when they are contracted, shortened, especially in spoken English.

CB

Thank you for help