''Should I not respect you?'' and ''Shouldn't I respect you?''

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Jackson6612

#436796 Tue, 30 Oct 07 01:52 PM

1: I should not respect you.

2: Should I not respect you?

3: Shouldn't I respect you?

The sentences 2 and 3 are the interrogatives made from the sentence 1. The sentence 3 is much more common than sentence 2. In grammar, a clause that is in the interrogative has its subject following do, be, have, or a modal verb. That means sentence 2 is grammatically correct. If that's the case, then sentence 3 is grammatically incorrect. If it is, then why is it used so frequently? Perhaps, it's just idiomatic.

Jackson6612

Joined on Wed, Dec 27 2006

Senior Member (2,952)

NOTE: When you reply to my post, please look for mistakes in grammar, syntax or punctuation, and let me know of any suggestions you have. Thank you.

Grammar, Verbs, Clauses, Modals, Modal verbs

Anonymous

#436805 Tue, 30 Oct 07 02:45 PM

Sentence 3 IS grammatically correct!!! As for it being more common, contractions are far more common in speech, while sentence n. 2 is more likely to be found in formal writing.

Think about these ones:

Isn't she lovely?
You are going to France, aren't you?
Aren't you studying French?
Can't you swim? Really?
Haven't you had your lunch? It's already 2 p.m.!
You worked yesterday, didn't you?
Doesn't Sheila work in a restaurant?
Don't you think they are correct?

Anonymous

Contractions

Bokeh

#436830 Tue, 30 Oct 07 04:05 PM

Jackson6612 wrote:
In grammar, a clause that is in the interrogative has its subject following do, be, have, or a modal verb.

The pronoun goes in the first possible position after do, be, have, or a modal verb. In a case where that verb is part of a contraction the first possible position is obviously after the whole contraction.

Bokeh

Joined on Sun, Mar 18 2007

Spain

Regular Member (506)

Grammar, Verbs, Clauses, Nouns, Pronouns, Modals, Contractions, Modal verbs

Yankee

#436833 Tue, 30 Oct 07 04:11 PM

Jackson6612 wrote:
1: I should not respect you.

2: Should I not respect you?

3: Shouldn't I respect you?

The sentences 2 and 3 are the interrogatives made from the sentence 1. The sentence 3 is much more common than sentence 2. In grammar, a clause that is in the interrogative has its subject following do, be, have, or a modal verb. That means sentence 2 is grammatically correct. If that's the case, then sentence 3 is grammatically incorrect. If it is, then why is it used so frequently? Perhaps, it's just idiomatic.

Hi Jackson

You left out an important sentence:
4. I shouldn't respect you.

The words should and not are contracted as shouldn't.

Basically, if you want to use that contraction in a question, the only option you have is to invert the subject and the contraction. That is also grammatically correct and standard.

Your sentences 1 and 2 are very formal and would be used primarily in formal written English.

Yankee

Joined on Sat, Apr 15 2006

Connecticut, USA

Senior Member (4,157)

Amy "You can't depend on your eyes when your imagination is out of focus." - Mark Twain

Grammar, Verbs, Clauses, Modals, Contractions, Modal verbs

Yoong Liat

#436858 Tue, 30 Oct 07 04:53 PM

Hi Jackson

~~The~~ Sentences 2 and 3 are the interrogatives made from ~~the~~ sentence 1. ~~The~~ Sentence 3 is much more common than sentence 2. In grammar, a clause that is in the interrogative has its subject following 'do', 'be', 'have' or a modal verb. That means sentence 2 is grammatically correct. If that's the case, then sentence 3 is grammatically incorrect. If it is, then why is it used so frequently? Perhaps, it's just idiomatic.

I've made some alterations. I hope you agree with them.

Yoong Liat

Joined on Mon, Sep 4 2006

Singapore

Veteran Member (6,006)

Yoong Liat

Grammar, Verbs, Clauses, Modals, Modal verbs

Jackson6612

#436861 Tue, 30 Oct 07 05:04 PM

Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi Jackson

~~The~~ Sentences 2 and 3 are the interrogatives made from ~~the~~ sentence 1. ~~The~~ Sentence 3 is much more common than sentence 2. In grammar, a clause that is in the interrogative has its subject following 'do', 'be', 'have' or a modal verb. That means sentence 2 is grammatically correct. If that's the case, then sentence 3 is grammatically incorrect. If it is, then why is it used so frequently? Perhaps, it's just idiomatic.

I've made some alterations. I hope you agree with them.

Hi Yoong,

Thanks a lot for the corrections.

Best wishes, Jackson

Jackson6612

Grammar, Verbs, Clauses, Modals, Modal verbs